Cast the first stone

[mich-b]

I am still a little perturbed at this suggested sequence (I think it was mich-b who proposed it):

 

1♠-2♦-3♦-3NT-4♣-4♦-4♥-4NT

 

because if the West hand were:

 

♠J10xxx  ♥AKx  ♦AQxx  ♣K

 

it would presumably bid the same way and the partnership would obtain a result no less undignified than the actual one (because West would bid 5♠ and East would bid a slam).

One more try to explain myself better :

 

With the original hands I would suggest something like:

1♠-2♦-3♦-3NT-4♣-4♦-4♥-5♣-5♦

 

Opener bypasses 3NT to show some extras, both sides cue to show controls , and since neither has further extras they sign off in 5♦.

 

If East held : ♠xx ♥Qxx ♦AKxxx ♣Axx.

1♠-2♦-3♦-3NT-4♣-4♦-4♥-4NT

Because this hand is much better than the original, and it is very difficult to construct hands where opener will not have ♠ control.

[gnasher]

I am still a little perturbed at this suggested sequence (I think it was mich-b who proposed it):

 

1♠-2♦-3♦-3NT-4♣-4♦-4♥-4NT

I suggested it first, though I also suggested a sequence where East continues to cue-bid and the partnership could expect to stop in 5♦. I agree that 4NT on the East hand is a bit careless.

 

But it seems to me that whereas one may bid games, or take decisions under pressure in competitive auctions, on the basis of percentages or intuition or both, this approach should not be applied to slam bidding.

Are slam decisions intrinsically different from other bidding problems? With any bidding problem, you want to know as much about partner's hand as possible, but if you don't have enough exact information, using judgment and probabilities instead is a reasonable alternative. With a slam decision, you may have more space in which to investigate, but you also have more to find out about.

[Old York]

How should the auction have progressed after 1♠-1NT(Forcing 6-12hcp)-2♦ ? (Genuine Question)

 

BBO-Advanced Fd seems to fizzle out at this point.

 

According to Fd, the 3♦ bid in the actual sequence already shows "extras", so advancing beyond 3NT may have been optimistic with only one keycard, but I can see how a GF 2♦ response would make West reluctant to pass.

Not a good hand for any system

 

Tony

[hanp]

Note to self: if dburn asks who made the mistake, don't pick west!

 

It seems all agree that west endplayed himself by bidding 4D instead of 4C. But what about 5C by east?

 

I think that east should cue. After giving a negative signal with 3NT, west still continued and bypassed the chance to cue clubs. Not only does east have a club control, he also has 2 keycards plus the spade queen which has to be useful.

 

To give a typically British argument: how else will you find 6D when east has AK10xx AJ AJxx xx or similarly AK10xx Ax AJxx Qx? (or should west jump to 4D with those hands?)

[hanp]

As east with xx Qxx AKxxx Axx I would bid:

 

1S - 2D

3D - 3NT

4C - 4D

4H - 5C

 

and respect partner's decision. I think that this describes the hand well.

[rhm]

As east with xx Qxx AKxxx Axx I would bid:

 

1S - 2D

3D - 3NT

4C - 4D

4H - 5C

 

and respect partner's decision. I think that this describes the hand well.

So assume West bids now 5♦. Are there many hands given West's bidding where slam is worse than an even chance?

As I said before I think West should not move over 5♦ with his actual hand, because he has done more than enough already.

Once partner made another move over East's slightly dubious 3NT (xx, QTxx AKxxx AJ would be more appropriate) I think I would not stop below slam.

I am with Fred and Rodwell seems to be of the same opinion that with good diamond support you should raise immediately even without extras.

This means that you need to apply judgment when you look for slam. That is do I have more than minimum and and is my hand suitable for slam?

 

Rainer Herrmann