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Freak distribution


jahol

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4N if it isn't keycard, 5D if it is.

perhaps an explanation of why 5 is WRONG is in order?

If you bid 5C partner will pass with 1 more club than diamond as you could be especially 6-6 or 6-5. This is obviously terrible for you.

 

If you don't play 4N as keycard here which I don't think you should, then 4N shows 2 more diamonds than clubs. Even playing this agreement it is not clear you want to use it since if partner is 1-3 in the minors you'd rather be in diamonds a lot of the time. I would still use it because there is a large chance of further competition and I'd like partner to know we have clubs. There is also a chance partner has 3+ more clubs than diamonds, in which case we'd like to be in clubs. There is also a chance that we have slam or grand slam in which case we might want to be in clubs, and we certainly want partner to know we have clubs.

 

It's possible to just plan to bid 5D then 6C if someone bids 5H, but I like the idea of bidding 4N and passing a double of 5H from partner who knows I have BOTH minors. I don't like the idea of 5D and passing a double as much since partner may have a big club fit.

 

In my dream world the auction goes 4N 5H p p and I bid 5N which shows 7-5 with strong diamonds (else I'd bid 6C).

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I was going to rebid 5 since the diamonds are always playable but Justin convinced me 4NT is better, mostly due to being able to trust partner's double of 5. And yes 5 is definitely wrong with a 2 card disparity and a suit quality disparity.
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Okay. I now, let us suppose that you have

 

Axx---AKJ8xxxx---void---Jx

 

non-vulnerable against vulnerable and the bidding was

 

1D------Pass------1S------4H

Pass----Pass------4S------???

 

What do you bid?

 

If the bidding was

 

1D------Pass-----1S-------4H

5D------Pass-----Pass-----???

 

does it make any difference for you?

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