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matmat

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2, assuming it is not forcing to game.

 

I will not distort my hand with a double, only for the sake of being able to stop in 2 instead of 3.

Distort?

 

And the reason isn't to stop lower in clubs although that is nice too, it's to not miss hearts when LHO bids 2 or 3.

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2, assuming it is not forcing to game.

 

I will not distort my hand with a double, only for the sake of being able to stop in 2 instead of 3.

Distort?

 

And the reason isn't to stop lower in clubs although that is nice too, it's to not miss hearts when LHO bids 2 or 3.

Amen to this! In fact not doubling may be masterminding the hand.

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What sort of values does double then 2 show? Could it also be xx K10xx K109xxx x, or does that hand have to pass 2?

Yes I think it can definitely be that hand and is not a forward going bid at all. I'm simply betting on 2D being a better partial than 2C.

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What sort of values does double then 2 show? Could it also be xx K10xx K109xxx x, or does that hand have to pass 2?

For me - and I believe in standard neg doubles - Dbl then 2D shows a weaker hand than the one shown.

 

I double and then pass, misfit.

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What sort of values does double then 2 show?  Could it also be xx K10xx K109xxx x, or does that hand have to pass 2?

For me - and I believe in standard neg doubles - Dbl then 2D shows a weaker hand than the one shown.

 

I double and then pass, misfit.

You're too strong to bid 2D ergo you pass?

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What sort of values does double then 2 show?  Could it also be xx K10xx K109xxx x, or does that hand have to pass 2?

For me - and I believe in standard neg doubles - Dbl then 2D shows a weaker hand than the one shown.

 

I double and then pass, misfit.

How can double followed by 2 be weaker than double followed by pass?

What is opener supposed to bid with 2=3=3=5 and no spade honor?

 

Rainer Herrmann

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What sort of values does double then 2 show?  Could it also be xx K10xx K109xxx x, or does that hand have to pass 2?

For me - and I believe in standard neg doubles - Dbl then 2D shows a weaker hand than the one shown.

 

I double and then pass, misfit.

How can double followed by 2 be weaker than double followed by pass?

What is opener supposed to bid with 2=3=3=5 and no spade honor?

 

Rainer Herrmann

1N obv

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I would downgrade to X and pass opposite a pick up partner.

X and 2 would be gameforcing with a one suiter to me, so this is out.

I guess that means a direct 2 is not forcing?

I would rate that 80% of my pick ups and 95 % of the guys I know play NFB here, so yes, I would assume it.

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2, assuming it is not forcing to game.

 

I will not distort my hand with a double, only for the sake of being able to stop in 2 instead of 3.

Distort?

 

And the reason isn't to stop lower in clubs although that is nice too, it's to not miss hearts when LHO bids 2 or 3.

Amen to this! In fact not doubling may be masterminding the hand.

Well, still under the assumption that 2 is not forcing to game, but only 10+:

 

If I double and bid 2, all my partners would expect me to hold less than 10 points, but very often 6 diamonds. But of course standards may vary from place to place. So if X followed by shows this hand, it will of course have more merit.

 

Furthermore, I will have no qualms about doubling a 2-raise. (And if I start with a double, and it is followed by a 2 raise passed to me, both pass and 3 will be quite uncomfortable.)

 

If LHO bids 3 and partner cannot double it is quite seldom that we miss 4. It might happen, but by not showing our potential for 3NT, we will miss that much more often. And we can throw in the diamond-partials and (the few) diamond games, that we will also miss. In fact, even if partner is strong, the diamond suit might be unmentioned, when 6 is laydown.

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this hand came up in one of the JEC matches the other day

 

T32 Q7 A86 AJ876

 

J64 AJ64 KQT94 5

 

the full auction was short, and as some of you suggested:

 

1 - (1) - X - ( P )

2 - ( P ) - 2- all pass

 

at the time i thought 2 was a little too pessimistic.

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What sort of values does double then 2 show?  Could it also be xx K10xx K109xxx x, or does that hand have to pass 2?

For me - and I believe in standard neg doubles - Dbl then 2D shows a weaker hand than the one shown.

 

I double and then pass, misfit.

You're too strong to bid 2D ergo you pass?

Not sure what I have said to cause a confusion about what I said...

 

I Dbl first, then pass. The hand is not too strong (or too weak) to bid 2D directly but IMO that is not as good as doubling, showing hearts.

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