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Is it forrcing?


mdaw

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Under "standard" agreements, no it is not forcing. That is because opener can jump to 2 to set a game force, thus 1 can be passed.

 

There is a style that people play in which new suits are forcing (thus a jump bid is a splinter) but I think it's too unplayable and plus it's not "standard".

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Hi,

 

I have a basic question about 2/1 system:

 

bidding:

1-1

1 - ?

 

Can responder pass after 1?

 

Regards,

David

IMO yes he can pass, since your 1 bid essentially limits your hand. I suspect there will be much consternation from many on the first sentence but hey you didn't reverse so you are weaker than you might have been. About now the "I have a 4441 hand" argument will surface but those seldom play as well as expected so even that is a limit of a sort.

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After specifically 1C-1D, Opener rebids NT (1 or 2) with balanced hands in the most common version of Hardy or Walsh 2/1 (talking about the old Walsh style 2/1, not the modern special responses). 1H shows an unbalanced hand short of jump-shift values. Passable? yes if you are in the group who respond 1D on trash, I guess. But under normal circumstances why would you want to do that? It gives the opponents too much room to come in at a very low level.
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I thought Walsh was a standard part of 2/1 and so I would think that 1 is kind of a reverse and forcing?

!!This is a question. I don't really know 2/1!!

Playing Walsh 1 shows an unbalanced pattern, typically 54 at least. With a balanced hand you would rebid in NT.

I is 100% non forcing, limited to about 16 points. Bid 2 with 17+ to create a force.

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I thought Walsh was a standard part of 2/1 and so I would think that 1 is kind of a reverse and forcing?

!!This is a question. I don't really know 2/1!!

Playing Walsh 1 shows an unbalanced pattern, typically 54 at least. With a balanced hand you would rebid in NT.

I is 100% non forcing, limited to about 16 points. Bid 2 with 17+ to create a force.

lol. so jump shifts are nonforcing, too? 17 is not a jump shift

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