Hanoi5 Posted October 2, 2009 Report Share Posted October 2, 2009 When do you consider a hand to be one-suited even though you actually have a side suit? Yesterday I blew a beautiful opportunity for a top by choosing to play in the 'other suit' with: ♠Axxx♥KQJ98xx♦x♣x My partner opened 1NT and we reached 6♠ which went down on a heart ruff. I should have just transfered and played in hearts but where would the losing spades go if partner didn't have a fit? Maybe it's just a bad slam? So from 6-4's on the 4-card suit should not be mentioned? Does it depend on the quality of the suit? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ONEferBRID Posted October 2, 2009 Report Share Posted October 2, 2009 It's a single-suited hand: 1NT - 4C! (Gerber)??if not off 2 Aces, then 6H Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
OleBerg Posted October 2, 2009 Report Share Posted October 2, 2009 I try to imagine how the hand will play in either suit, if partner is two cards longer in the shortest of my two suits. If the long suit plays better, I take preference myself. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted October 2, 2009 Report Share Posted October 2, 2009 I don't know all the technical reasons, but it seems that "a 7-card suit is trumps", is a time tested rule. Even 7-1 vs 4-4 usually works for us. Now, go ahead and construct the hands where I am wrong. Am sure there are some. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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