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Kaplan Inversion


awm

What are opener's rebids playing Kaplan Inversion?  

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  1. 1. What are opener's rebids playing Kaplan Inversion?

    • 1H-1S-1NT shows four spades; 2m can be 3 if 3523 etc
      13
    • 1H-1S-1NT is balanced or semi-balanced; 2m can be 3 if 45(31)
      12
    • Transfers after 1H-1S (i.e. 1N 3+ clubs; 2C 3+ diams, etc)
      2
    • Something else
      2


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I think in Kaplan's version the 1NT response only promised four good spades - 1 usually showed fewer than four, but could occasionally be four poor. The significance is that the 1NT rebid was natural (but might have four spades), whereas in the Granville version the 1NT rebid promised four spades.
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I've always been convinced that Kaplan inversion is the following:

1-1 = 0-4, forcing

1-1NT = 5+, forcing

 

1-1-1NT = 4

 

Therefore 1-1-2m is always 3+ cards (otherwise you have a problem with 4=5=2=2)

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What is Kaplan Inversion?

I've heard  it is "Brown Sticker" here in USA but I'm sure it is OK across the pond.

Nothing is "Brown Sticker" in the US - that's a WBF thing.

Kaplan Inversion (whether 1-1NT shows 4 or 5 spades) isn't allowed under the ACBL General Convention Chart, but is allowed under the MidChart ("All other constructive rebids and responses are permitted" with an exception that doesn't apply here).

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Lots of possibilities here... First you have to decide whether the 1 response denies 4 or not and whether the 1NT response shows 5 or 4 (any 4 or only a good 4).

Having 1NT show 5 simplifies things after 1-1NT, but complicates things after 1-1. For instance, as the 1 response is limited in strenght (usually up to 11-12), you have to bid balanced GF hands with 4 spades another way. If you would use 2 for that, it is unlikely you will be able to bid naturally after 1-2.

 

A compromise between efficiency and naturalness would be to play:

1-1NT shows a good 4 that can be raised to 2 on any 3, then

1-1NT-2 shows 3

1-1NT-2 shows 4

1-1-1NT shows 4 spades

1-1-2m is just like after 1-1NT if you don't play the inversion.

 

The transfer rebids after 1-1 are superior, but with added complexity...

 

Steven

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The best way is to play:

1H-1S

1NT: 4S or 3S5H(32), 11-15

 

This way you find a lot of excellent 2S Moysians.

 

1H-1S

1NT-2C=relay

2D= 35(32)

2H= 6H4S

2S= 5H4S

2NT= 45(40) weak

3C= 4504, 14-15

3D= 4540, 14-15

3H= 6H4S, good 14-15

 

The only problem is with the 2533 hand - you should rebid 2m with it, probably 2D if you are playing Gazzilli.

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I wouldn't profess to know what the "standard" continuations are, but my partnerships play

1 1 = 0-4

1 1NT = 5+ spades

Strength of responder up to about a 15 count (using 1 2 for stronger hands)

 

Replies to 1 1 :

1NT = 12-16 balanced or with 4 spades.

. . 2 (with 8+ points) asks :

. . . . 2 = 12-14 balanced

. . . . 2 = 12-14 with spades

. . . . 2 = 15/16 with spades

. . . . 2NT = 15/16 balanced

. . other responder bids takeout / normal

2 = Gazzilli-like any hand 17+, or natural clubs any strength

. . 2 (with 8+ points) asks:

. . . . 2 = 12-14 with clubs

. . . . 2 = 15/16 with clubs

. . . . 2NT+ = 17+ natural

2 = 4+, 12-16

2 = 6, 11-16

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It's amusing to get such a split decision on a question like this one.

 

In any case, I always thought Kaplan Inversion was like Justin said (1-1NT 5+, opener's 1NT rebid after 1-1 shows four spades) but I've played a bunch recently in a team game with a number of the Los Angeles area's better players and they all seem to play Kaplan Inversion the other way, to the degree that they sit down with new partnerships and ask "do you want to play Kaplan Inversion? okay" without further discussion. BTW some partnerships from this group play both Kaplan Inversion and Flannery (which is weird to me because I always thought one of the advantages of KI was being able to avoid rebidding 2-card minors without having to play Flannery).

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