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Evaluation question


Discourage or cooperate?  

32 members have voted

  1. 1. Discourage or cooperate?

    • Discourage with 3NT, non-forcing but need not be passed
      31
    • Cooperate with some bid other than 3N (probably 4C)
      1
    • Other ??
      0


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[hv=s=skqjhaktxdxxcqjxx]133|100|You to bid

Uncontested auction.

Current bid is 3 by partner (non-passed hand), showing 4-1-4-4 GF+, in response to your 1NT opener (15-17, vanilla)[/hv]

Would type of scoring or vul affect your answer?

Would it make a difference if you have already shown 4 Hearts in response to Stayman?

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uhhh...3N? AFAIK partner is just trying to get to the right game (GF+) in case I have weak hearts. I don't have weak hearts.

 

I also don't have a particularly good hand even if I knew partner was slammish.

 

I suppose if I had shown hearts already and partner had shown 4144 anyways that might be construed as slammish (since it's not worth giving away the information to find out if partner has four BAD hearts or not with just game going values), but that would be a matter of bidding philosophy, and if that is the case you should have explained it as "slammish" rather than GF+.

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3NT. Opposite a minimum or middling game forcing hand my hand is not that great. Any slam is likely to be in clubs, and the K is of virtually no value in a club contract. My spades and clubs are great, but the diamond doubleton is not a significant asset.

 

I have a great heart holding for notrump, so 3NT it is.

 

I have played splinter bids opposite 1NT openings, and the primary value of the method (especially at IMPs) is to avoid 3NT when the notrump opener's holding opposite the singleton is questionable. Here, the heart holding is not questionable.

 

If there is a slam on these cards, partner is likely to take another call.

 

At matchpoints, 3NT is clearer than it is at IMPs (and it is clear at IMPs).

 

If I had already shown my 4 card heart holding, 3NT is still clear. I could have had xxxx of hearts. I actually hold AKTx of hearts. What more is there to say?

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3N of course. Our hand is average, but not great. The K isn't particularly useful to partner.

 

I like the rest of this hand, and the black Jacks are working nicely. If pard wants to make another move I will cooperate.

 

Game before slam.

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Let's imagine a hand partner might have.

 

Axxx in spades would be nice. That provides us with four easy tricks.

 

Stiff heart? Our heart Ace is useful, and the King is always a trick.

 

AKxx in clubs? Nice solid suit.

 

Axxx in diamonds? Perfect -- only one diamond loser. We expect to take four spades, two hearts, a diamond, and four clubs on power, for 11 tricks, and one ruff.

 

So, slam may make easily.

 

What is that hand again?

 

Axxx x Axxx AKxx

 

A primed-out 15-count. I think he might make another sound over 3NT.

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[hv=s=skqjhaktxdxxcqjxx]133|100|You to bid

Uncontested auction.

Current bid is 3 by partner (non-passed hand), showing 4-1-4-4 GF+, in response to your 1NT opener (15-17, vanilla)[/hv]

Would type of scoring or vul affect your answer?

Would it make a difference if you have already shown 4 Hearts in response to Stayman?

discourage because the AKTx are severely wasted(well the KT) opposite a 4144 hand

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It is impossible to create a more perfect minimum on which 6 is a favorite (maybe add the 10).

 

Congrats to any pair that finds their way to 6 on these cards after a 1NT opening.

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Thanks for all the replies.

 

So: do you move over 3N with:

 

Dealer: ?????
Vul: ????
Scoring: Unknown
Axxx
x
AKxx
KTxx
 

?

Depends what I showed by my bidding to date, GF+ is not very helpful in that I'm not totally clear whether it means "a GF or more" or "a GF with extras". If I bid this way on a 10-11 count then I may move with a nice 14, probably to 4N which should be safe opposite 15. If I've shown 13+ then of course I don't move.

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What is the worst holding your partner could have to bid GF+ over a 15-17NT?

If it could be something like this: xxxx x KQJx Kxxx

then 3NT from your side is the only option. But if the agreed minimum is that low, partners hand (shown above) is worth a move over 3NT because he's some good 5 HCP stronger than an expected minimum.

 

If the agreed minimum is a tiny bit stronger:

xxxx x KQJx Axxx

xxxx x Kxxx AKxx

xxxx x AQJx Kxxx

5 already has at least a 50:50 chance to make.

 

With partners holding 5 (or 4NT) should be save and 6 worth an investigation.

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I think 1NT 3 showing a 4=1=4=4 with GF+ and no limit upward is very bad. I think responder is interested in knowing where is the 4-4 fit (if any) in order to try and look for a slam there. It'll be great to play minor suit stayman over normal stayman (which shows a slam interested hand as this one is), like:

 

1NT-2

2-2*

3-4

 

and take it from there. Of course this would work best at imp's as in MP's you don't want to have to stop at 5m instead of playing 3NT +1.

 

Anyway I wouldn't stop as responder once I know of the club fit, but I would probably bid 3NT if my partner could only have 10-12 HCP.

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