tkass Posted September 14, 2009 Report Share Posted September 14, 2009 [hv=n=skqh105dak109xxcj54&s=sj962ha94dqj5ca92]133|200|[/hv] south pass west:pass north: 1di east bid:2sp south: 2nt all pass imps ns are red Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
effervesce Posted September 14, 2009 Report Share Posted September 14, 2009 North should bid 3NT after south bids 2NT - if 2NT is making, 3NT will probably too (just looking at the north hand) because of the many diamond tricks. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
karlson Posted September 14, 2009 Report Share Posted September 14, 2009 On the given auction north has an easy 3n bid. Not sure why south didn't bid 1s -- if opener has 4 spades (along with diamonds), this hand will play much better in a suit. Over 1d-1s north will rebid 2d, and now that south knows about the trick source, he has an easy 3n bid with aces and so much help in diamonds. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
tkass Posted September 14, 2009 Author Report Share Posted September 14, 2009 good question: in fact east bid 2sp over 1di i forgot when i do the pool dont think it matter a lot for the quizz maybe i am wrong Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
655321 Posted September 14, 2009 Report Share Posted September 14, 2009 South has passed an opening hand, and North did not go on to 3NT with a good 6 card suit. Where is option (d) both players are to blame. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jlall Posted September 14, 2009 Report Share Posted September 14, 2009 Norths bidding is way crazier to me than souths, 75/25 north. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted September 14, 2009 Report Share Posted September 14, 2009 Both, although North bidding 3NT is way more obvious than South... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trinidad Posted September 14, 2009 Report Share Posted September 14, 2009 Both. North should have accepted the invite. South should have opened, failing that, he should have bid 3NT, the next round. Rik Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted September 14, 2009 Report Share Posted September 14, 2009 This is all about partnership agreements, what is an opening for north? how regularilly he opens 10/11 counts in a minors, does he ever pass 12 counts?. Just one point not raised: stopping the opponent's suit with the Jack 4th is very good for 3NT, often promoting the jack to a full trick. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mtvesuvius Posted September 14, 2009 Report Share Posted September 14, 2009 Both. I would open the south hand, but north has a 100% clear 3NT bid. I'll say 81/20 to north (Yes, 655321 :() Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
skjaeran Posted September 15, 2009 Report Share Posted September 15, 2009 South has a clear opening hand for most people. Facing an overcall by myself, south now has a clear 3NT bid. Facing a lighter overcalling style, an invite is correct. North has a clear raise to 3NT, whatever overcalling style. With the expected spade lead, north can count two spade tricks and six diamond tricks - you can assume the suit is running facing an invite. And south need to have another trick. I'd assign most of the blame to north, who has the most clearcut, and final, decision. 80/20. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
nick_s Posted September 15, 2009 Report Share Posted September 15, 2009 Whether to open the south hand is a matter of partnership style IMO. I would, but only because I play a 12-14 NT. North has a clear raise to 3NT. Even dedicated point counters should be adding on additional points for length and intermediates in that fine diamond suit. I'd guess it's worth around 14-15 points which should be enough for the walruses to accept an invite. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MattieShoe Posted September 16, 2009 Report Share Posted September 16, 2009 I'm a weakish player, but I'd have passed initially as south given the unexciting distribution. As North, I'd have taken it to 3NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted September 16, 2009 Report Share Posted September 16, 2009 South has an opening bid. North has a 3NT bid. Both take the blame. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Vilgan Posted September 16, 2009 Report Share Posted September 16, 2009 South has a clear opener imo. However, passing the south hand is "conservative" whereas passing 2NT with the north hand is ludicrous. Therefore its clearly north, although south should still get bopped over the head for passing the first round. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
billw55 Posted September 16, 2009 Report Share Posted September 16, 2009 Agree south should open. Two aces and three nines are worth an extra point. But having passed, next bidding only 2NT is at least consistent. Bidding 3NT would basically say "oops this is an opening hand after all". And north could be weaker for a 3rd seat opener. From north's point of view, 3NT does seem mandatory. In short, both are culpable. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
NickRW Posted September 16, 2009 Report Share Posted September 16, 2009 South has a clear opening hand for most people... I think I have to second that - I'm really quite conservative about borderline balanced hands, but even I'm giving this one a go. Nick Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CSGibson Posted September 20, 2009 Report Share Posted September 20, 2009 I think South's initial pass is reasonable with a 4-3-3-3 12 count with only two quick tricks and 9 losers. I might not make the call at the table, but I certainly won't say that it's wrong if that's your style. Having passed, I think 2N is right (Partner shouldn't be that light on the auction, but giving him leeway is still reasonable), and partner has a clear 3N acceptance. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
yahooya Posted September 23, 2009 Report Share Posted September 23, 2009 if I take south hand, I will pass. but in 2nd round I will 3NT firmly. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gwnn Posted September 23, 2009 Report Share Posted September 23, 2009 i'm pretty sure jumping to 3NT as a passed hand is a non-existent option. Only if you found another Queen lost in your hand would it make sense to me. If you routinely pass and later invite with 12 counts, however, North really really really really must bid 3NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jmcw Posted September 23, 2009 Report Share Posted September 23, 2009 By my standards South has a pass. After a 1♦ opener my hand gets better. Good enough for 3NT. On the actual auction North's pass seems a bit tame. Both N and S could have done better I rate it about 60/40 on South. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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