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kaplan-Sheinwold


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FOR THOSE WHO HAVE ADOPTED TO A 2/1 STYLE.

IT IS ALL WELL AND GOOD OPENING A MAJOR TO THEN USE YOUR 2/1 BID. EVEN WHEN YOU OPEN 1 DIAMOND AND YOU HAVE NO CALL UP THE LINE OF YOUR MAJORS AND YOU HAVE NO CALL TO USE INVERTED MINOR.2-3-2-6 OR 3-3-3-4, BUT YOU DO HAVE A 2 CLUB BID. (GF). NOW LETS MOVE ON TO YOUR PARTNER OPENING 1 CLUB. IS THERE A 2/1 BID FOR THAT? SO HOW CAN YOU TELL PARTNER IN YOUR FIRST RESPONSE WHAT KIND OF HAND YOU MAY HAVE? ONE SEGMANT OF BRIDGE PLAYERS WILL JUST USE A "STANDARD" APPROACH TO THIS 1 CLUB OPENER AND THAT'S BIDDING UP THE LINE. ANOTHER GROUP OF BRIDGE PLAYER'S SAY "IS THERE A BETTER WAY TO DEFINING MY HAND?" AND THEY WILL BY-PASS THE BID OF A 4/5 DIAMONDS SUIT AND BID THEIR 4 CARD MAJOR WITH A POOR HAND. MINIMUM 6 POINTS OR SO. THE KEY IS THIS FIRST RESPONSE. SO I SAID "POOR HAND." NOW WHAT IF A STRONG HAND SUCH AS GAME FORCE AND EVEN WITH SLAM IDEAS? SO THEN COMES THE EXCEPTION AND THAT IS TO BID ONE DIAMOND. YOU MAY HAVE LONG DIAMONDS OR SHOR DIAMONDS. I WILL LEAVE YOU WITH THIS TO PONDER ON. THERE IS MORE TO COME AS WITH ANY CONVENTION. YOUR EITHER A STANDARD BIDDER OR YOU’RE A MODEREN BIDDER. YOU MAKE THE CHOICE.

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for those who have adopted to a 2/1 style.

it is all well and good opening a major to then use your 2/1 bid. even when you open 1 diamond and you have no call up the line of your majors and you have no call to use inverted minor.2-3-2-6 or 3-3-3-4, but you do have a 2 club bid. (gf). now lets move on to your partner opening 1 club. is there a 2/1 bid for that? so how can you tell partner in your first response what kind of hand you may have? one segmant of bridge players will just use a "standard" approach to this 1 club opener and that's bidding up the line. another group of bridge player's say "is there a better way to defining my hand?" and they will by-pass the bid of a 4/5 diamonds suit and bid their 4 card major with a poor hand. minimum 6 points or so. the key is this first response. so i said "poor hand." now what if a strong hand such as game force and even with slam ideas? so then comes the exception and that is to bid one diamond. you may have long diamonds or shor diamonds. i will leave you with this to ponder on. there is more to come as with any convention. your either a standard bidder or you’re a moderen bidder. you make the choice.

 

caps removed (in case someone wants to read it...)

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That's not Walsh as I learned it from Marty Bergen. You don't bid diamonds unless you have diamonds.

correct

 

also. generally when i have a game forcing hand and partner bids 1m it doesn't bother me that i can't say GAME FORCE!!~!!!!!! right away since i can just show that eventually no problem. if i bid diamonds without diamonds and the opps preempt... partner might get us into serious trouble.

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The whole gist of Walsh is to bypass diamonds and show your 4-card major if you are

only strong enough for one bid (i.e. not invitational).

 

If you are invitational or better, you bid normally, up the line. There's no problem

showing a 5-card diamond suit since you're prepared to reverse into your major, thus

showing shape and strength.

 

If you do respond 1, opener can bypass a 4-card major, knowing you'll show one

on the rebid, if you have one. So,

 

1 - 1 - 1NT may hide 4-card majors in either or both hands.

 

 

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Actually, you can play a 2/1 GF style after a 1 opening. Because there is so much space after a 1 opening, I like an artificial 2 showing either invitational with clubs (and no four-card major) or any other GF hand that does not have a 5-card major (but may have one or both 4-card majors), a modified Golady.

 

I point that out simply because refuting the capper on the premise sounded fun.

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I am away from home and my bridge books, but my memory of Bergen's Walsh treatment (in BBB1) is that the reverse into a Major after 1c-1d-1N guaranteed game-forcing strength, not invitational-plus. So that diamonds were bypassed in favor of the 4-card Major with any lesser hand, not just those "worth only one bid."

 

Am I misremembering? Or was there a subsequent change/clarification?

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I am away from home and my bridge books, but my memory of Bergen's Walsh treatment (in BBB1) is that the reverse into a Major after 1c-1d-1N guaranteed game-forcing strength, not invitational-plus. So that diamonds were bypassed in favor of the 4-card Major with any lesser hand, not just those "worth only one bid."

 

Am I misremembering? Or was there a subsequent change/clarification?

u are not wrong...that is what 2/1 is all about--bidding suits in natural length order is gf if second suit is higher than 1st suit. makes nice, slow gf auctions.

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for those who have adopted to a 2/1 style.

it is all well and good opening a major to then use your 2/1 bid. even when you open 1 diamond and you have no call up the line of your majors and you have no call to use inverted minor.2-3-2-6 or 3-3-3-4, but you do have a 2 club bid. (gf). now lets move on to your partner opening 1 club. is there a 2/1 bid for that? so how can you tell partner in your first response what kind of hand you may have? one segmant of bridge players will just use a "standard" approach to this 1 club opener and that's bidding up the line. another group of bridge player's say "is there a better way to defining my hand?" and they will by-pass the bid of a 4/5 diamonds suit and bid their 4 card major with a poor hand. minimum 6 points or so. the key is this first response. so i said "poor hand." now what if a strong hand such as game force and even with slam ideas? so then comes the exception and that is to bid one diamond. you may have long diamonds or shor diamonds. i will leave you with this to ponder on. there is more to come as with any convention. your either a standard bidder or you’re a moderen bidder. you make the choice.

 

caps removed (in case someone wants to read it...)

Someone should stop that kid. Otherwise we may suddenly find our sculptures and granites changed.

Cheez n crackers!

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This could be a serious question, and I think it behoves people with methods to handle strong hands to explain what they do.

 

I am aware of 2 ways to show strong hands :

the first is simply to play inverted minors but opener (excepting possibly closely defined agreed hands) after hearing 2 makes a 2 relay. Responder's rebids then show whether it is "strong" (your choice of game forcing or slam seeking strength) or a normal invitational hand with club support.

 

The second is to play transfer Walsh, which has advantages all round, and then the responder gets a second bite of the cherry to describe his hand. You can combine this with the first option, so with a 13-15 type hand responder makes the transfer Walsh bid, and with 16+ goes down the inverted minor route.

 

I have never played Walsh without the transfer, but I can't imagine anyone bidding 1 without diamonds.

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There are several gadgets available over 1 to make life easier.

 

I prefer:

Transfer responses

1NT=10-12 (6-9 is in the 1 response together with diamond hands)

2=GF raise

2 red = transfers (weak or strong)

2=8-11 unbal/semibal raise

2NT=13+ bal GF

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