DRWTAHOE Posted September 11, 2009 Report Share Posted September 11, 2009 FOR THOSE WHO HAVE ADOPTED TO A 2/1 STYLE.IT IS ALL WELL AND GOOD OPENING A MAJOR TO THEN USE YOUR 2/1 BID. EVEN WHEN YOU OPEN 1 DIAMOND AND YOU HAVE NO CALL UP THE LINE OF YOUR MAJORS AND YOU HAVE NO CALL TO USE INVERTED MINOR.2-3-2-6 OR 3-3-3-4, BUT YOU DO HAVE A 2 CLUB BID. (GF). NOW LETS MOVE ON TO YOUR PARTNER OPENING 1 CLUB. IS THERE A 2/1 BID FOR THAT? SO HOW CAN YOU TELL PARTNER IN YOUR FIRST RESPONSE WHAT KIND OF HAND YOU MAY HAVE? ONE SEGMANT OF BRIDGE PLAYERS WILL JUST USE A "STANDARD" APPROACH TO THIS 1 CLUB OPENER AND THAT'S BIDDING UP THE LINE. ANOTHER GROUP OF BRIDGE PLAYER'S SAY "IS THERE A BETTER WAY TO DEFINING MY HAND?" AND THEY WILL BY-PASS THE BID OF A 4/5 DIAMONDS SUIT AND BID THEIR 4 CARD MAJOR WITH A POOR HAND. MINIMUM 6 POINTS OR SO. THE KEY IS THIS FIRST RESPONSE. SO I SAID "POOR HAND." NOW WHAT IF A STRONG HAND SUCH AS GAME FORCE AND EVEN WITH SLAM IDEAS? SO THEN COMES THE EXCEPTION AND THAT IS TO BID ONE DIAMOND. YOU MAY HAVE LONG DIAMONDS OR SHOR DIAMONDS. I WILL LEAVE YOU WITH THIS TO PONDER ON. THERE IS MORE TO COME AS WITH ANY CONVENTION. YOUR EITHER A STANDARD BIDDER OR YOU’RE A MODEREN BIDDER. YOU MAKE THE CHOICE. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mtvesuvius Posted September 11, 2009 Report Share Posted September 11, 2009 I am a bidder with my caps lock off. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Elianna Posted September 11, 2009 Report Share Posted September 11, 2009 I agree with Adam. I'd like to add that I'm curious as to who is your intended audience? Are you trying to start a conversation or intending to lecture someone? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jjbrr Posted September 11, 2009 Report Share Posted September 11, 2009 new cayuga? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gwnn Posted September 11, 2009 Report Share Posted September 11, 2009 for those who have adopted to a 2/1 style.it is all well and good opening a major to then use your 2/1 bid. even when you open 1 diamond and you have no call up the line of your majors and you have no call to use inverted minor.2-3-2-6 or 3-3-3-4, but you do have a 2 club bid. (gf). now lets move on to your partner opening 1 club. is there a 2/1 bid for that? so how can you tell partner in your first response what kind of hand you may have? one segmant of bridge players will just use a "standard" approach to this 1 club opener and that's bidding up the line. another group of bridge player's say "is there a better way to defining my hand?" and they will by-pass the bid of a 4/5 diamonds suit and bid their 4 card major with a poor hand. minimum 6 points or so. the key is this first response. so i said "poor hand." now what if a strong hand such as game force and even with slam ideas? so then comes the exception and that is to bid one diamond. you may have long diamonds or shor diamonds. i will leave you with this to ponder on. there is more to come as with any convention. your either a standard bidder or you’re a moderen bidder. you make the choice. caps removed (in case someone wants to read it...) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CarlRitner Posted September 11, 2009 Report Share Posted September 11, 2009 That's not Walsh as I learned it from Marty Bergen. You don't bid diamonds unless you have diamonds. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kfay Posted September 11, 2009 Report Share Posted September 11, 2009 That's not Walsh as I learned it from Marty Bergen. You don't bid diamonds unless you have diamonds. correct also. generally when i have a game forcing hand and partner bids 1m it doesn't bother me that i can't say GAME FORCE!!~!!!!!! right away since i can just show that eventually no problem. if i bid diamonds without diamonds and the opps preempt... partner might get us into serious trouble. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CarlRitner Posted September 11, 2009 Report Share Posted September 11, 2009 The whole gist of Walsh is to bypass diamonds and show your 4-card major if you are only strong enough for one bid (i.e. not invitational). If you are invitational or better, you bid normally, up the line. There's no problem showing a 5-card diamond suit since you're prepared to reverse into your major, thus showing shape and strength. If you do respond 1♦, opener can bypass a 4-card major, knowing you'll show one on the rebid, if you have one. So, 1♣ - 1♦ - 1NT may hide 4-card majors in either or both hands. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted September 11, 2009 Report Share Posted September 11, 2009 Actually, you can play a 2/1 GF style after a 1♣ opening. Because there is so much space after a 1♣ opening, I like an artificial 2♣ showing either invitational with clubs (and no four-card major) or any other GF hand that does not have a 5-card major (but may have one or both 4-card majors), a modified Golady. I point that out simply because refuting the capper on the premise sounded fun. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted September 11, 2009 Report Share Posted September 11, 2009 new cayuga?that's my vote. or a clone of same. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pooltuna Posted September 12, 2009 Report Share Posted September 12, 2009 new cayuga?that's my vote. or a clone of same. I take it cayuga was a BBF poster and not a canoe? :lol: Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted September 12, 2009 Report Share Posted September 12, 2009 new cayuga?that's my vote. or a clone of same. I take it cayuga was a BBF poster and not a canoe? :lol:yep...search for 'cayugaguy" and for "pformaini". they were one and the same Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Infidel Posted September 12, 2009 Report Share Posted September 12, 2009 I am away from home and my bridge books, but my memory of Bergen's Walsh treatment (in BBB1) is that the reverse into a Major after 1c-1d-1N guaranteed game-forcing strength, not invitational-plus. So that diamonds were bypassed in favor of the 4-card Major with any lesser hand, not just those "worth only one bid." Am I misremembering? Or was there a subsequent change/clarification? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted September 12, 2009 Report Share Posted September 12, 2009 I am away from home and my bridge books, but my memory of Bergen's Walsh treatment (in BBB1) is that the reverse into a Major after 1c-1d-1N guaranteed game-forcing strength, not invitational-plus. So that diamonds were bypassed in favor of the 4-card Major with any lesser hand, not just those "worth only one bid." Am I misremembering? Or was there a subsequent change/clarification?u are not wrong...that is what 2/1 is all about--bidding suits in natural length order is gf if second suit is higher than 1st suit. makes nice, slow gf auctions. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dicklont Posted September 12, 2009 Report Share Posted September 12, 2009 I have a problem with Walsh.With a weak hand you bid the major first, but when you find a fit in that major the strong hand will become dummy.Now how's that a good thing? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
H_KARLUK Posted September 12, 2009 Report Share Posted September 12, 2009 for those who have adopted to a 2/1 style.it is all well and good opening a major to then use your 2/1 bid. even when you open 1 diamond and you have no call up the line of your majors and you have no call to use inverted minor.2-3-2-6 or 3-3-3-4, but you do have a 2 club bid. (gf). now lets move on to your partner opening 1 club. is there a 2/1 bid for that? so how can you tell partner in your first response what kind of hand you may have? one segmant of bridge players will just use a "standard" approach to this 1 club opener and that's bidding up the line. another group of bridge player's say "is there a better way to defining my hand?" and they will by-pass the bid of a 4/5 diamonds suit and bid their 4 card major with a poor hand. minimum 6 points or so. the key is this first response. so i said "poor hand." now what if a strong hand such as game force and even with slam ideas? so then comes the exception and that is to bid one diamond. you may have long diamonds or shor diamonds. i will leave you with this to ponder on. there is more to come as with any convention. your either a standard bidder or you’re a moderen bidder. you make the choice. caps removed (in case someone wants to read it...) Someone should stop that kid. Otherwise we may suddenly find our sculptures and granites changed.Cheez n crackers! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
blackshoe Posted September 12, 2009 Report Share Posted September 12, 2009 It's better than the weaker hand becoming dummy in the wrong strain. I suppose that's why some play transfer Walsh. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bid_em_up Posted September 12, 2009 Report Share Posted September 12, 2009 new cayuga? or shubi :D Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CarlRitner Posted September 12, 2009 Report Share Posted September 12, 2009 It is "game strength" and not "invitational plus" hands that will first bid legitimate diamonds and then reverse into a 4-card major. I stand corrected. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gordontd Posted September 12, 2009 Report Share Posted September 12, 2009 Where does Kaplan-Sheinwold (or even kaplan-Sheinwold) come into all this? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted September 12, 2009 Report Share Posted September 12, 2009 Where does Kaplan-Sheinwold (or even kaplan-Sheinwold) come into all this? :D You will be sorry you asked, I am sure. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mtvesuvius Posted September 12, 2009 Report Share Posted September 12, 2009 Where does Kaplan-Sheinwold (or even kaplan-Sheinwold) come into all this? The Lowercase "K" was obviously just to annoy me :D Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
fromageGB Posted September 16, 2009 Report Share Posted September 16, 2009 This could be a serious question, and I think it behoves people with methods to handle strong hands to explain what they do. I am aware of 2 ways to show strong hands :the first is simply to play inverted minors but opener (excepting possibly closely defined agreed hands) after hearing 2♣ makes a 2♦ relay. Responder's rebids then show whether it is "strong" (your choice of game forcing or slam seeking strength) or a normal invitational hand with club support. The second is to play transfer Walsh, which has advantages all round, and then the responder gets a second bite of the cherry to describe his hand. You can combine this with the first option, so with a 13-15 type hand responder makes the transfer Walsh bid, and with 16+ goes down the inverted minor route. I have never played Walsh without the transfer, but I can't imagine anyone bidding 1♦ without diamonds. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CarlRitner Posted September 17, 2009 Report Share Posted September 17, 2009 Because it's explained incorrectly here http://www.bridgehands.com/W/Walsh_Diamond_Responses.htm and a few other places on the internet Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
skjaeran Posted September 18, 2009 Report Share Posted September 18, 2009 There are several gadgets available over 1♣ to make life easier. I prefer:Transfer responses1NT=10-12 (6-9 is in the 1♠ response together with diamond hands)2♣=GF raise2 red = transfers (weak or strong)2♠=8-11 unbal/semibal raise2NT=13+ bal GF Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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