jillybean Posted September 3, 2009 Report Share Posted September 3, 2009 [hv=d=n&v=n&s=skqhakj87643d2cj2]133|100|Scoring: MP1♦ (1♠) ?[/hv] Not playing NFB's - your bid? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cascade Posted September 3, 2009 Report Share Posted September 3, 2009 2♥ boring and normal and forcing Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
andy_h Posted September 3, 2009 Report Share Posted September 3, 2009 Yeap 2♥. You may want to blast 4♥ shutting out LHO for a spade raise to induce them into a sacrifice but I don't think that's very likely nor wise. We have 8 of these hearts so I would definitely want to search for a slam. The ideal minimum hand we want partner to have is xx xxx AKxx Axxx. So 2♥ now and await for developments. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted September 3, 2009 Report Share Posted September 3, 2009 2H Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
effervesce Posted September 3, 2009 Report Share Posted September 3, 2009 2♥. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jillybean Posted September 3, 2009 Author Report Share Posted September 3, 2009 [hv=d=n&v=n&s=skqhakj87643d2cj2]133|100|Scoring: MP1♦ (1♠) ?[/hv] Not playing NFB's - your bid? Ok 1♦ (1♠) 2♥ (P)2N (P) ? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mtvesuvius Posted September 3, 2009 Report Share Posted September 3, 2009 2♥, no reason to clog an artery thinking about this one :lol:4♥ now Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ArtK78 Posted September 3, 2009 Report Share Posted September 3, 2009 2♥ over 1♠. 3♠ now, intending to bid 4♥ later. This hand will produce slam opposite an opening bid packed with controls with three of the following four cards - the missing three aces and the ♥Q (assuming that partner does not have A or Ax of spades) and a grand slam if partner has all four. I am going to let partner know that I am not bidding 4♥ on a moderate hand with AKxxxxxx of hearts. I find that merely bidding 4♥ at this point or at the first chance to bid is a gross underbid. There is no rush. We can always get to 4♥ later. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mcphee Posted September 3, 2009 Report Share Posted September 3, 2009 2H is surely the only sensible beginning. After 2NT 3S with the intention of bidding 4H over the expected 3N reply. I am not driving to slam, but I sure have itchy feet and want to let partner know I have the goods. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jillybean Posted September 3, 2009 Author Report Share Posted September 3, 2009 [hv=d=n&v=n&s=skqhakj87643d2cj2]133|100|Scoring: MP1♦ (1♠) ?[/hv] Not playing NFB's - your bid? It started ok 1♦ (1♠) 2♥ (P)2N (P) This is where it went off the rails and I ended up in 6♥, missing 2 aces :( Its too painful to post the actual auction. I fell in love with my hand, shut partner out of the auction and forged ahead. Im still thinking slam so 4♥ seems like an underbid, how can I check for 6 safely and keep partner in the picture.. what is 3♠? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ArtK78 Posted September 3, 2009 Report Share Posted September 3, 2009 This is where it went off the rails and I ended up in 6♥, missing 2 aces :( Im still thinking slam so 4♥ seems like an underbid.. what is 3♠? A cue bid. You want to differentiate between a hand on which you would bid 4♥, a hand with a long suit and moderate values, say: xx AKT9xxx Kx xx and a hand like yours which is at least one, probably two, tricks more powerful. So you cue bid and then bid 4♥. If partner has a lot of controls, he may be able to continue on. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jillybean Posted September 3, 2009 Author Report Share Posted September 3, 2009 A cue bid in what, how does partner respond? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
andy_h Posted September 3, 2009 Report Share Posted September 3, 2009 Over 2NT I will bid 3♠ which is artificial and forcing. By process of elimination (for this auction) it's pretty much showing a self suited hand. That is, if we had clubs we bid 3♣ (forcing), if we want to sign off in diamonds we bid 3♦ and that goes with 3♥ as well, and if we wanted to set diamonds we can bid 4♦. In some other auctions, 3♠ may consist of both meanings (slam try in hearts or diamonds) and usually partner will bid 3NT and over that we remove to 4♦ to set diamonds or bid 4♣ suggesting self suited hand with a club control. For example, that auction might be 1♦-(1♠)-2♥-(2♠)-3♦-(Pass)-3♠. This 3♠ actually has a 3rd function, in that it is also a stopper ask. In this type of auction opener should always assume it is asking for a stopper, because if opener bids 3NT and responder removes that, it will tell opener that the intended meaning of 3♠ was a slam try. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ONEferBRID Posted September 3, 2009 Report Share Posted September 3, 2009 [hv=d=n&v=n&s=skqhakj87643d2cj2]133|100|Scoring: MP1♦ (1♠) ?[/hv] Not playing NFB's - your bid? It started ok 1♦ (1♠) 2♥ (P)2N (P) This is where it went off the rails and I ended up in 6♥, missing 2 aces :( Its too painful to post the actual auction. I fell in love with my hand, shut partner out of the auction and forged ahead. Im still thinking slam so 4♥ seems like an underbid, how can I check for 6 safely and keep partner in the picture.. what is 3♠?I'm unsure about a SELF-splinter here when there is interference.First, the background with NO interference: 1D - 1H1NT - 3S/4C/4D are SELF-splinters for Responder's suit ( Hts ). So, I'm wondering in the present auction: 1♦ (1♠) 2♥ (P)2N (P) ?? would 4C/4D be self splinters here? ( 4S!- jump cue definitely would be ).3C would be forcing ( new suit at 3-level by unpassed partner), thus 4C is a jump over a force which would qualifiy it as a splinter.But only if 3D were a forcing bid ( and I don't think it is ) would a 4D-jump qualify as a splinter. Therefore, my own conclusion, much as I dislike it, is that 4D would not be a splinter. So I'm stuck with the 3S-cue for now at this point.... and then 4H next over the expected 3NT ( as the others have mentioned ) - - Don - - Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gwnn Posted September 3, 2009 Report Share Posted September 3, 2009 agree with the **** volcano Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jillybean Posted September 3, 2009 Author Report Share Posted September 3, 2009 agree with the **** volcano 4♥? I expected much more from you! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pooltuna Posted September 3, 2009 Report Share Posted September 3, 2009 In some other auctions, 3♠ may consist of both meanings (slam try in hearts or diamonds) and usually partner will bid 3NT and over that we remove to 4♦ to set diamonds or bid 4♣ suggesting self suited hand with a club control. For example, that auction might be 1♦-(1♠)-2♥-(2♠)-3♦-(Pass)-3♠. This 3♠ actually has a 3rd function, in that it is also a stopper ask. In this type of auction opener should always assume it is asking for a stopper, because if opener bids 3NT and responder removes that, it will tell opener that the intended meaning of 3♠ was a slam try. Over 2NT I will bid 3♠ which is artificial and forcing. By process of elimination (for this auction) it's pretty much showing a self suited hand. That is, if we had clubs we bid 3♣ (forcing), if we want to sign off in diamonds we bid 3♦ and that goes with 3♥ as well, and if we wanted to set diamonds we can bid 4♦. If 3♦ is non forcing why did you bid 2♥? I mean if you are worried about not being able to show a ♥ suit maybe you should use a negative double. IMO 3♦ is 1000% forcing. This frees up 4♦ to be what it should be....a ♥ self-splinter Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cascade Posted September 3, 2009 Report Share Posted September 3, 2009 With most of 9 tricks and a partner who opened the bidding I have too much to just bid 4♥ now. So I am with the 3♠ bidders. I agree also that on this particular auction that partner should be able to work out that I am single-suited with hearts. That might depend on partnership understandings as it would be possible in theory to make an advanced cue-bid of spades before agreeing partner's suit. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gwnn Posted September 3, 2009 Report Share Posted September 3, 2009 agree with the **** volcano 4♥? I expected much more from you! maybe it's a bit too pessimistic. I'm generally pessimistic when it comes to slam vs game and optimistic otherwise. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ArtK78 Posted September 3, 2009 Report Share Posted September 3, 2009 In some other auctions, 3♠ may consist of both meanings (slam try in hearts or diamonds) and usually partner will bid 3NT and over that we remove to 4♦ to set diamonds or bid 4♣ suggesting self suited hand with a club control. For example, that auction might be 1♦-(1♠)-2♥-(2♠)-3♦-(Pass)-3♠. This 3♠ actually has a 3rd function, in that it is also a stopper ask. In this type of auction opener should always assume it is asking for a stopper, because if opener bids 3NT and responder removes that, it will tell opener that the intended meaning of 3♠ was a slam try. Over 2NT I will bid 3♠ which is artificial and forcing. By process of elimination (for this auction) it's pretty much showing a self suited hand. That is, if we had clubs we bid 3♣ (forcing), if we want to sign off in diamonds we bid 3♦ and that goes with 3♥ as well, and if we wanted to set diamonds we can bid 4♦. If 3♦ is non forcing why did you bid 2♥? I mean if you are worried about not being able to show a ♥ suit maybe you should use a negative double. IMO 3♦ is 1000% forcing. This frees up 4♦ to be what it should be....a ♥ self-splinter A 2/1 in competition is not game forcing in Standard systems. It does promise a rebid, but that is about it. A later preference to partner's first suit is non-forcing. So I disagree with your conclusion that 2♥ followed by 3♦ is forcing. I also disagree with your conclusion that 4♦ would be a self-splinter. To me, 4♦ would be a maximum confusion bid - the one bid guaranteed to mess up the auction. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted September 3, 2009 Report Share Posted September 3, 2009 [hv=d=n&v=n&s=skqhakj87643d2cj2]133|100|Scoring: MP1♦ (1♠) ?[/hv] Not playing NFB's - your bid? It started ok 1♦ (1♠) 2♥ (P)2N (P) This is where it went off the rails and I ended up in 6♥, missing 2 aces :( Its too painful to post the actual auction. I fell in love with my hand, shut partner out of the auction and forged ahead. Im still thinking slam so 4♥ seems like an underbid, how can I check for 6 safely and keep partner in the picture.. what is 3♠? Bidding the opponents suit is the generic force, it is a bidthat says, I am strong, but for whatever reason I lack a moredescriptive bid. In the current seq. it asks partner, are you really sure, you want to play 3NT, please have a 2nd look at your stopper.It may suggest 4H in a 5-2 fit. If partner bids 4H, I will bid 5H, a quantitative invite.If partnerbids 3NT, I will bid 4H, which will show a strong singlesuited hand. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted September 3, 2009 Report Share Posted September 3, 2009 After 1♦ (1♠) 2♥ pass 2NT passyou should play transfers: 3♣ showing diamonds, 3♦ showing six hearts, 3♥ cue bid, 3♠ showing clubs. That lets you sign off in either red suit, and also deal with all the game-forcing hands. On this hand, I'd transfer to hearts and then bid 3♠. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted September 3, 2009 Report Share Posted September 3, 2009 Those who bid 3♠ happilly are also aware that not so long ago the consensous for the 2NT bid was that it didn't show stopper? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted September 3, 2009 Report Share Posted September 3, 2009 After 1♦ (1♠) 2♥ pass 2NT passyou should play transfers: 3♣ showing diamonds, 3♦ showing six hearts, 3♥ cue bid, 3♠ showing clubs. That lets you sign off in either red suit, and also deal with all the game-forcing hands. On this hand, I'd transfer to hearts and then bid 3♠. I think what solves the problem the best is much more easy, play NFBs, and bid a forcing 3♥. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Quantumcat Posted September 4, 2009 Report Share Posted September 4, 2009 Ah, another fan of transfers! I don't think transfers are so good in this situation because there will be times where you need natural bidding and the similar situations where you use transfers or natural bidding might get blurred and then you have horrible misunderstandings. With two of my partners we have transfers after interference of 1-suit opening and after any 1-1-1 auction, which works well: you can have weak bids and standard 2/1 bids with one bid. Also that a jump transfer (after interference of 1-suit opening) shows a bad pre-empt or single-suited slam interest (probably a bad agreement but I like it) so here it would go 1♦ (1♠) 3♦ (P) 3♥ (P) 3♠ cueing showing slam-interest and that hearts are trumps no matter what partner has. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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