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This was in a recent BBO tournament. Playing 2/1 you, West hear your partner opens 1 and your RHO passes. You hold the following hand and what is your best response here.

 

I want to hear what experts think about bidding here. I'll let you know what I bid and the full hand after I hear some responses.

 

[hv=d=e&v=e&s=s2h76d10643cakq965]133|100|Scoring: MP[/hv]

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I bid 2 (inverted) as I do not feel I have the strength to bid 2 and then support diamonds.

 

We shall probably hear a bid from LHO unless partner is 4441 or strong 4432. I feel that 2 is most likely to get us to 3NT when it is the right contract.

 

However, in the version of 2/1 I actually play I'd respond 2. This is because 1 guarantees 5 diamonds in an unbalanced hand unless 4441.

 

I dislike the 1NT response as it will wrong side the contract.

 

Tough problem and I'd expect many different answers.

 

Cheers

 

Paul

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Yup, tough one.

 

Bids available appear to be 1N, 2D and 3C.

 

1N is a pessimistic view. It may wrongside a subsequent 3N contract but I don't care who plays it at the 1 level. This is one hand where you might welcome a 2M bid by opps, that you can then cue to direct partner to bid 3N with guard that he is happy to have led through. Having started with 1N partner should guess your Club suit, but of course you have concealed the Diamonds.

 

I vote for 3C (limit bid, invitational with long Clubs). This is still pessimistic but it seems the lesser weevil.

 

Final thought: how about Pass (lurking). Then cue bid opps suit.

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If partner had opened a weak NT, I would punt game (3NT). Here, if partner hasn't got a weak NT hand, then he has at least 4 . In which case the fit means I am still strong enough to GF (especially if GF really means that we can stop in 4m if necessary).

 

So 2 for me.

 

Eric

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Depends...

Is 1-2 Mancheforcing or 10+. In standard 2/1 it's not GF, but 10+. If playing that I bid 2. (One point short, but more then compensated by long ).

If you play 1-2 Mancheforcing:

In that case I bid 2: inverted minors: 10+ and fit and no higher 4 card.

...if you play 1-2 Mancheforcing & you don't play inverted minors (but this is not 2/1): no good bid. I really don't want to bid 1NT with this hand... I would bid 3.

On-line with only agreement 2/1: 2

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3C, diamond limit, then think about whether or not to bid 3nt

Out of interest, how do you respond with a 2=3=2=6 hand with (say) 10 scattered points?

over 1D? 1NT... i assume you don't like the 3C diamond limit because of this hand type... the truth is, all conventional raises lose something... for example, i play reverse flannery over 1c or 1d, so i lose the weak jump shift... but it seems to work out fine... here's the whole minor structure, for what it's worth:

 

http://www.geocities.com/kjuncharm/21.html

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2 GF, despite the 9HCP I think this hand is GF!  I don't like 2 since with 2 I can show my hand better, and partner can do the same...

 

if this is a game force, why not splinter in spades? now 2C could be the right bid, i don't know... but i think a spade splinter might help partner better evaluate the fit..

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2, inverted raise. For me, 3 is limit raise in 's. This hand is better than that (but diamonds not good enough). 2 is wrong because I can't get back to 's then easily... see cardshark's answer. Insightful.

 

Ben

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2 GF, despite the 9HCP I think this hand is GF!  I don't like 2 since with 2 I can show my hand better, and partner can do the same...

 

if this is a game force, why not splinter in spades? now 2C could be the right bid, i don't know... but i think a spade splinter might help partner better evaluate the fit..

Who says we have a fit in s?? Ok, chance is pretty high p has 4+s, but it's not sure. I rather like to show my s, and have to see what partner bids to know how I'll continue.

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3 splinter agreeing diamonds.

 

At worst partner is a 4-4-3-2.

 

3 doesnt set diamonds. It merely expresses an opinion about your hand.

 

A great player once said "Bridge is a Conversation".

 

Let your bidding box do the talking !!

 

Dwayne-o-mite.

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This was in a recent BBO tournament. Playing 2/1 you, West  hear your partner opens 1 and your RHO passes. You hold the following hand and what is your best response here.

 

I want to hear what experts think about bidding here. I'll let you know what I bid and the full hand after I hear some responses.

 

Dealer: East
Vul: E/W
Scoring: MP
2
76
10643
AKQ965
 

are you playing inverted minors?? - if so I bid 2D if not I "cheat" in the 2/1 response and bid 2C :)

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2 GF, despite the 9HCP I think this hand is GF! I don't like 2 since with 2 I can show my hand better, and partner can do the same...

I agree completely

Misho

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probably a decent tactical chance, but i just don't like forcing to game with 2 hands that might not make game.. of course, if 2C is forcing to 4 minor also, that might work

 

as ben said, maybe the diamonds aren't good enough for the diamond limit, but then they also aren't good enough for a 2D inverted raise (IF that raise is a game force - maybe so if can stop at 4m)

 

as dwayne said, the 3S splinter doesn't necessarily set diamonds, tho it would tend to...

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I play 2/1 but our 1/2 responses are just 10+, guess why? :).

 

If I am playing 2 as game forcing it is a tough problem, I would bid 2, ,but 1NT is very close.

 

If I was playing with my regular partner.... 3: limit minor 2 suiter.

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2 of course, if your system bars you from bidding a suit AKQxxx, isn't it too ridiculous? just dump it to the toilet and play one that allow you to bid a AKQ 6th.

NTC allow you to show any AKQxxx+ suit as responder... Look:

http://www.geocities.com/daniel_neill_2000/sys/index.html for NTC system :lol:

Misho

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  • 2 weeks later...

I bid 2, since this is only sequence in my 2/1 version that is NOT GF. I am just showing 10+, and no 4 card major with 5 + . Suprising how much easier bridge becomes when you use common sense. :D

 

Mike :D

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