the hog Posted August 30, 2009 Report Share Posted August 30, 2009 This hand was reported to me as occuring in a club game. My friends were practicing. First 12 card suit anyone present had ever seen. Vul vs not JvoidAQJxxxxxxxxxvoid Qun 1. What do you open and why? (Fwiw, 4NT would ask for specific aces.)I know this is a hypothetical question as these hands may never even come up once in a lifetime. Qun 2. If you decide to open 6D and it goes (P) P (x), do you redouble? Reasons please. Qun 3. Would any of the above be influenced if you knew that there will be an almighty hesitation afer a 4NT or 6D opening? (No this is not going to be a rulings question). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted August 30, 2009 Report Share Posted August 30, 2009 Is this goulash?, my friend reported me a similar hand partner opening a preempt on another suit, and on the post analysis, the best solution was to le the opponents play in 4 spades, because when you keep bidding your suit, you opponents finally bid 7 spades making (and this cost him an expensive rubber). if its not goulash lets go for the 4NT thing. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pooltuna Posted August 30, 2009 Report Share Posted August 30, 2009 Is this goulash?, my friend reported me a similar hand partner opening a preempt on another suit, and on the post analysis, the best solution was to le the opponents play in 4 spades, because when you keep bidding your suit, you opponents finally bid 7 spades making (and this cost him an expensive rubber). if its not goulash lets go for the 4NT thing. this is all wrong I can tell just by looking that you are a dog-walker and that is what this hand is meant to do :P Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Phil Posted August 30, 2009 Report Share Posted August 30, 2009 If I don't open 4N on this when would I ever open it? Not the time to walk the dog r/w. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
xcurt Posted August 30, 2009 Report Share Posted August 30, 2009 1. If I open 4NT and get to 6 or 7 diamonds they will save period. That's going to beat our small slam almost all the time since partner would need to produce 7 tricks on defense (6 if I get to ruff the opening lead in 6♠). Not likely. Also, it will beat our grand slam all the time. Also, they'll know which offsuit not to lead after something like 4NT-5H; 6D-P. Club game equals matchpoint scoring, right? I'll just open 6D, giving up on 7 the one time in three it's there in order to maximize my chances of playing the hand. 2. I would pass after 6D-P-P-something. Doubling or redoubling here shows something like --, Axx, AKxxxxxx, AK. 3. Of course there's going to be a hesitation since at least one of the opponents is void in diamonds and if the other one isn't he's going to hate his diamond holding for defense. So it's not informative to know this will happen. By the way, there might be a tactical reason to bid 4NT, if you think LHO is going to tank-pass it and you're playing in an honest game. RHO might then think he is barred. I'm not sure about the legality of making the second best call deliberately because you think it maximizes the chance of the opponent BIT'ing themselves out of the auction, which is where you want them, and I'd definitely not do that at the table if these thoughts occurred to me at the time. I think it's different from offering up the opportunity for a lead-directing huddle for a lead you actually want -- where you trap the black hats and not the white hats with your action. And this is a rediculously awesome Chinese Poker hand -- straight flush, straight flush, JJQ. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted August 30, 2009 Author Report Share Posted August 30, 2009 Is this goulash?, my friend reported me a similar hand partner opening a preempt on another suit, and on the post analysis, the best solution was to le the opponents play in 4 spades, because when you keep bidding your suit, you opponents finally bid 7 spades making (and this cost him an expensive rubber). if its not goulash lets go for the 4NT thing. Not a goulasch. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mtvesuvius Posted August 30, 2009 Report Share Posted August 30, 2009 My first instinct was to pass... but R/W this doesn't look too good. I'm bidding 4NT and hoping for the best. The other possibility that crossed my mind was 1NT ;) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bill1157 Posted August 30, 2009 Report Share Posted August 30, 2009 what if you just open 3,4,or5♦ and save over 5 of a major? Bill Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pooltuna Posted August 30, 2009 Report Share Posted August 30, 2009 what if you just open 3,4,or5♦ and save over 5 of a major? Bill Bill, I hear your dog scratching at the door. It needs to go out for a walk ;) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dlbalt Posted September 28, 2009 Report Share Posted September 28, 2009 Qun 1. What do you open and why? (Fwiw, 4NT would ask for specific aces.) I know this is a hypothetical question as these hands may never even come up once in a lifetime. Pass or bid 3,4,5, 6 or 7 diamonds. No action is correct. First of all, there's a good chance you have to go to 7 to buy it. Bidding 3-5 ♦, somebody is holding spades and you will be outbid. Two of the other hands are void in ♦ and they will feel obligated to bid, which is an argument in favor or passing. If you come in after passing they may think you are saving, and let you play the contract. The real problem is that partner will try to rescue by bidding ♥ or ♠. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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