bill1157 Posted August 22, 2009 Report Share Posted August 22, 2009 what does this sequence show in precision? And if it shows long diamonds, what does 1♦-1M-2♦ show? (and what about 1♦-1M/3♣?) Bill Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
blackshoe Posted August 22, 2009 Report Share Posted August 22, 2009 Precision Today (Berkowitz and Manley): a good diamond suit and a good NT hand. Example, after a 1♥ response: [hv=d=n&s=sk5h98dakq974cqt6]133|100|[/hv] Godfrey's Stairway to the Stars (Rosenkranz and Alder): hand worth a 3♦ rebid, but fewer than 3♥. 3♦ is "natural, but with three card heart support". Okay, Romex Forcing Club isn't precisely Precision, but it's close. :) RFC would bid the example hand the same way as Berkowitz and Manley suggest. Rigal's Precision in the 90s may have something different, but I can't find my copy right now. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rd6789 Posted August 23, 2009 Report Share Posted August 23, 2009 I play this as showing good 4 card support of partners major and 5 good diamonds or good 3 card support of partner;s major and 6 good diamonds. 3C from partner asks which hand I have, 3D=3/6 3M=4/5 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted August 24, 2009 Report Share Posted August 24, 2009 5/4 or 4/5 in the minors with 3 card support for partner, 14-15 HCP. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bill1157 Posted August 24, 2009 Author Report Share Posted August 24, 2009 5/4 or 4/5 in the minors with 3 card support for partner, 14-15 HCP. you are talking about 1♦-1M/2N? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Double ! Posted August 24, 2009 Report Share Posted August 24, 2009 Question is unclear. If mean the opps pass throughout and the bidding goes 1D -p- 1M-p - 2NT: If my memory serves me well (always a risky assumption), in the original version of Precision, the 2NT rebid by 1D opener over 1M by responder showed a max 1D opener with a solid diamond suit. Perhaps things have changed. A rebid of 2D simply showed an opener with 5, probably 6 diamonds, not solid, and no 4-card support for responder, and not appropriate for a 1NT rebid. 1D - 1M - 3C showed a good 5-5, 14-15 hcp.Again, I strongly suspect that many have their own revisions and interpretations of these sequences. DHL Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted August 24, 2009 Report Share Posted August 24, 2009 5/4 or 4/5 in the minors with 3 card support for partner, 14-15 HCP. you are talking about 1♦-1M/2N? Yes. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lowerline Posted August 24, 2009 Report Share Posted August 24, 2009 The following is not uncommon: 2♦ = natural 5+crd (if 6crd then minimum or bad suit)2NT = 6crd diamonds max, not 3crd M support3♣ = 55m max3♦ = 6crd diamonds max + 3crd M support Steven Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
maggieb Posted August 25, 2009 Report Share Posted August 25, 2009 For 1♦-1M2NT I like that this shows a maximum with exactly 3-card support for the major and 6♦. Rebidding 3♦ just shows a max with long diamonds (usually 7), 3♣ is a maximum 5-5. Most hands with 6♦ should just rebid 2♦. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
agusaris Posted August 25, 2009 Report Share Posted August 25, 2009 Another suggestion. The rebid of 2NT shows four card suport for responders major and a singleton/void in either clubs or the other major. Responder bids 3 clubs and opener rebids 3 diamonds with short clubs and three of the major when short in the other major. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
A2003 Posted August 25, 2009 Report Share Posted August 25, 2009 1♦-1M - 2NT: Exactly three card Major, long and strong diamonds, at least game invitational values. Opener has a hand that is worth 3♦, but with major support. This bid can also be made with 3=4=6=0 shape for responder 1♠ bid. 1D-1H, 2NT- 3C: Something in clubs; the initial meaning is a stopper, lookingfor 3NT, but if responder then goes back to 4H he shows a slam try,too strong to just sign off in 4H. Continuations natural.1D-1H, 2NT- 3D: Prefers diamonds to hearts for the partial, rejects game.1D-1H, 2NT- 3H: A fifth heart (usually), but not enough to bid game. Opener isexpected to pass. If you are tempted to keep bidding, rememberthat responder can have a less count.1D-1H, 2NT- 3S: Something in spades; slam try if responder goes back to 4Hover 3NT.1D-1H, 2NT- 3NT: To play. Responder can have KQxx/QJxx/x/KT9x.1D-1H, 2NT- 4C: Self-splinter for hearts. Responder has 5+ hearts and isslamming.1D-1H, 2NT- 4D: Prefers diamonds, forcing. Probably only four hearts.1D-1H, 2NT- 4H: Signoff. Not interested in slam.1D-1H, 2NT- 4S: RKC for hearts.1D-1H, 2NT- 4NT: Does not exist. Could be a self-splinter for hearts, showingspade shortness, but probably better to make a lower forcing bid with that hand. Also, if you are short in spades, the opponents would probably have bid something by now.==============================================1♦-1M - 2♦: Standard, almost always a six-card suit. But would raise to 2♥ with three-card support more freely than some, so 2D rebid tends to deny support. It always denies four spades, of course. Bid 2♦ instead of the raise only with a minimum (less likely to miss a game).Also, with 6-4 in the minors, you should rebid 2♦ instead of 2♣ if you are minimum. Rebidding 2♣ with that shape should be done only if you are going to accept an invitation.========================================================1♦-1M - 3♣: Natural, at least 6-5 minors, maximum opening that does not qualify for a 1♣ opening. Not forcing. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Tola18 Posted September 1, 2009 Report Share Posted September 1, 2009 When playing Strong Club I tried to play it as a sort of reversed Jacoby. Thrue, it was my own invention, but later they told me this is a common approach among experts. Thus: 4-fit, about maximum in points, usually semibalanced hand. This hand IS quite common!3M would be too 4-fit, good hand - but unbalanced hand. Thus in part preemptive as there is risk for opps to contest. Further bidding natural: With weak hand resp bids 3M and we play there. With modest hand resp bids 4M and we hopefully make it. If partner bids anything else it is a natural slam-searcher. Problem? My last SC-partner, a interm+, when having weak hand did usually passed that 2NT. Thus forcing me to play difficult 2NT instead of easy 3M.... GRRR Interesting to see there are also other good solutions. I shall perhaps rethink some. :) The main point here is of course, 1D-1M, 2NT doesnt have any natural meaning in strong-club systems, as this cant be the usual NT-ladder. Thus you can use this empty bid for something else and useful. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jmc Posted September 1, 2009 Report Share Posted September 1, 2009 Awhile back I asked a similar question and Joshs suggested using 2NT over 1d-1s to show either 3-card s support and 6+d or 4-card S support and a stiff somewhere. Look for his response in this thread. http://forums.bridgebase.com/index.php?showtopic=16395&hl= I have been playing this and we have gotten some very nice results from it. jmc Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mtvesuvius Posted September 1, 2009 Report Share Posted September 1, 2009 I play it showing 6♦, Max w/3 card support, I think this is somewhat common Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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