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Let partner out?


Jlall

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This is a tough problem. The range of the not-vul overcall in 1D-2C can logically begin lower because it takes away so much room. Then again, they opened in third seat and their responder passed 2C, that responder doesn't hold much.

 

I plan on passing 3C when he bids it over 2S unless my 2D and 2S bids have created a situation (by agreement or by some expert standard that I don't know about) that I promise to act one more time over 3C, but I don't think such promises can apply for a passed hand. I'm not too confident about my choice but it is a non-vul game, if we miss it I'll have to hope we beat them in other hands ;)

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AJT9 x JTx QJTxx

 

w/w imps you are 2nd seat.

 

P P 1D 2C

p 2D p 2H

p ?

 

What do you bid? If you bid 2S partner bids 3C, what do you over that? First time partnership but your partner is known as an aggressive player.

yeah I bid 2 and at these colors the rewards are not sufficiently enticing so I pass 3

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AJT9 x JTx QJTxx

 

w/w imps you are 2nd seat.

 

P P 1D 2C

p 2D p 2H

p ?

 

What do you bid? If you bid 2S partner bids 3C, what do you over that? First time partnership but your partner is known as an aggressive player.

I don't think 2 has necessarily promised club support, so it seems wrong to just leave partner in 3 over 2 when we're looking at QJTxx in his suit. 5 could easily be on: give partner the perfecto of: x Axxx xx AKxxxx.

 

I'm bidding 2 followed by 4 over 3 (and hoping we don't have 3 diamond losers and a major suit loser).

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2D then 2S then pass 3C. There are many reasonable hands for partner where 9 tricks are the limit - xx KQxx xx AKxxx. I can see making one more try with 4C but forcing to game seems too much to me.

 

Edit: I forgot to mention the main reason why partner is likely to have 5 clubs only - the opponents are silent with almost 20 hcp, seems unlikely that they both have club shortness. Of course, if your partner would often overcall 1 with 2425 shape and good hearts, then bidding on gets more interesting.

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I drove to 4C. This seemed right at the time because I was placing partner with 4-6 given my QJT of clubs. I personally can't think of that many hands at all with 4-5 that I would overcall 2C when my clubs are at best AK9xx.

 

Anyways, as cherdano said partner is very unlikely to have a min 4-6 since the opps quit bidding! Missed this at the table. Oh well. Partner had Qx Kxxx xx AK9xx. 3C was the limit.

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w/w imps you are 2nd seat. AJT9 x JTx QJTxx

P P 1D 2C

p 2D p 2H

p ?

What do you bid? If you bid 2S partner bids 3C, what do you over that? First time partnership but your partner is known as an aggressive player.

IMO
  • Over partner's 2, I would have preferred 3 to 2.
  • Now (after partner's 3) I would bid 3 rather than Pass.

That'll teach partner to be more careful about 2-level overcalls :)

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Cherdano's point about partner not having 6 clubs because of opponents' silence is educational for me, but very subtle in that I would find it hard to estimate how much the slight extra distribution would influence the probability of the opponents finding another bid. Comments?

 

A more simple-minded reason to suspect partner has only 5 clubs is that the six card suit is 6 times less likely to be dealt (though against that a six card overcall is much more likely to be acceptable without both top honors).

EDIT-- AKxxx is 4 times more frequent than AKxxxx and 2.8 times more frequent than AYxxxx where Y can be either K or x. Allowing for the pro-rate chance to lose a trick to the K when overcaller has Axxxxx, the relevant operational ratio is somewhere in between. Why do I bother with these calculations?

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Nowadays opps x your suits with a small stiff on almost any excuse (and I agree w them). I think it's a pretty strong argument tbh. Even if responder has shortness and is broke most of the time opener would have had a 1nt opener.
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