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[hv=d=n&n=sqxxhjdakqjxxcakx&s=skxxhaxxdxxcqjxxx]133|200|1 (1) 2 (P)

2 (P) 2N (P)

3 (p) 3N

all pass[/hv]

 

We missed 6N/6D, should it be obvious?

2 shows at least game invitational hand, and with north's club support, I think it is obvious.

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How about:

 

1 (1) 1NT (P)

3 (P) 4 (P)

5 (P) 6//NT

3 ?

I think N is too strong for 3NT, and there isn't a convenient 4-card suit to jump shift or reverse into. Sometimes you just have to lie a little :(

 

I suppose N could always cue-bid hearts in order to force. Maybe I'm resulting a little :)

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[hv=d=n&n=sqxxhjdakqjxxcakx&s=skxxhaxxdxxcqjxxx]133|200|1 (1) 2 (P)

2 (P) 2N (P)

3 (p)  3N 

all pass[/hv]

 

We missed 6N/6D, should it be obvious?

Hi,

 

after a NFB 2C - your partner knowes about the club fit, usually

we are talking about a 6-3 fit.

His best bid would be 3H, a splinter, after which you should be

able to reach 6C.

But you may still end up in 5C.

 

After 1NT it becomes harder, even nearly impossible to reach 6?,

since your partner will need to take into account the fact that you will

be limited to 7-10 with wasted heart values, i.e. ending up in 3NT will

be normal.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

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I'd definitely bid 2. I used to play lots of nfb and I think on normal 5 card suits and a tenuous stop they're superior to 1NT freebids. I played them as (7)8-11 though, not 6-10 as some people seem to play them (cascade being one of them) - for me 2 quite descriptive.
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[hv=d=n&n=sqxxhjdakqjxxcakx&s=skxxhaxxdxxcqjxxx]133|200|1 (1) 2 (P)

2 (P) 2N (P)

3 (p)  3N 

all pass[/hv]

How about:

 

1 (1) 1NT (P)

3 (P) 4 (P)

5 (P) 6//NT

3 ?

I agree with Kathryn, in this auction you don't have to make up 3-card suits. North can bid 2 to force to game. With his actual hand, however, I think 3 is a much better bid - it shows game forcing values with heart shortness and 6+ diamonds (with a 4-card side suit he would bid that).

Over 3, South almost has a slam force (the minimal possible wastage in hearts and 10 nice points) - if he didn't have weak trumps. I think I would bid

1D (1H) 1N

3H 4H

4N 5C

6D

 

I don't understand the 2 bidders with a balanced hand, a bad 5-card suit, and just the right values for 1NT.

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[hv=d=n&n=sqxxhjdakqjxxcakx&s=skxxhaxxdxxcqjxxx]133|200|1 (1) 2 (P)

2 (P) 2N (P)

3 (p)  3N 

all pass[/hv]

 

We missed 6N/6D, should it be obvious?

1) I thought 1nt easy over 1h not 2c

2) given the OP bidding over 2c I would rebid 3h...some huge hand.......

3) in any case after 2c i must bid past 3nt......

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