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Yet another bad slam


nigel_k

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[hv=d=w&w=skqjxxhaqxdakjxcx&e=sxxhjtxdxxxxcaktx]266|100|Scoring: IMP

1 1NT

3 4

4 5

6[/hv]

Assign the blame. If East should bid 3NT over 3, should West keep bidding with eg AKQxx, x, AKQx, Qxx and/or his actual hand?

 

I don't know much about Gazzilli or similar conventions so if you use them and they would solve this, please post something about that.

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we have played worse slams.

 

A way I see to stop in time is that East bids 4 instead of 4, I would understand this as a cue for diamonds, then he bids 5 to show AK but nothing else, and West now has a clearer sing off.

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Hi,

 

Asuming 1 NT was forcing, the 4D bid sounds like 10-12 bal.

with prime values, i.e. the East hand is to weak to bid 4D.

Hence I think 3NT is a lot better, at least opener will be aware,

that he may still be facing a 6-9.

Alternativly 4D should include more distribution.

 

If 1NT was nonforcing, you need very specific cards to make

slam better than 50%, so I would say settling for game is

still enough.

 

And I would not move over 3NT, if you exchanged my opening

hand, afterall 3NT does not imply a fit.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

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I wouldn't waste any time assigning blame to this one.

 

The slam is not that unreasonable, and playing a natural system, it is hard to evaluate the wastage in clubs.

I agree . I like all of your bids.

 

About fluffy's sugestion on bidding 4, I like it, but to my partnership 4 would be unfortunately natural.

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West said he had a good hand at every juncture. It is hard to see what he thought was so good about his hand. When he knows that the A is missing he now needs the equivalent of A Q and K for a good slam. East has not shown all of those cards.

 

Some east's might not raise to 4 but I don't like to criticize a partner who raises.

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From East's perspective, West could easily have A, K, Q when he raises diamonds.

 

From West's perspective, East could easily have AKxxx Ax AKJxx xx when he bids 3.

 

So, looking for slam makes sense, if you decide to bypass 3NT.

 

Assuming that you so elect, the question, then, is methods.

 

I like the idea that 4 shows a club card. Then, after whatever cue from Opener (likely 4 -- good trumps), 5 tells the tale.

 

If 4 is unavailable, 4 makes sense. Opener can still envision slam, so what next?

 

I would have had 4 as RKCB. But, that carries with it the idea that 4NT by either party is a heart cue. The problem with this is that the auction is not as good as just cues. Opener does not get enough info from RKCB to decide. If 4 is taken, then Opener's 4 cue seems wrong. Sure, it shows two of the top three spades, but contextually I think the Ace should be required. But, even if you cue 4, it would be important that 4NT is not cue'd, meaning no heart King.

 

If RKCB is not available, then 4NT by Responder should be a cue, whether trump or hearts (the "stolen" cue). Or, serious/non-serious.

 

The issue is technique.

 

If technique is "seat of pants" or undiscussed, then I think Opener makes a stab but never accepts. Responder must accept. With only AK on clubs (no internals), he declines.

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we have played worse slams.

 

A way I see to stop in time is that East bids 4 instead of 4, I would understand this as a cue for diamonds, then he bids 5 to show AK but nothing else, and West now has a clearer sing off.

I use Fluffy's method.

4C as an advance cue for partner's 2nd suit;

 

However, Responder seems about a Queen short in strength.

- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -

When partner shows a strong 2-suiter--GF, normally at least a 5/5-- what sense does it make to introduce a different, natural suit at the 4-level ?

- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -

Responder's alternatives for supporting the 1st suit are:

1S - 1NTF

3D - ??

...........3S = weak bid, could be as few as 2 cards Sp

...........4S = 3 card limit raise; a hand that would have jumped

to 3S if Opener had made a minimum rebid of 2C/2D/2H.

( This is NOT a fast arrival situation ).

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