gwnn Posted July 29, 2009 Report Share Posted July 29, 2009 You have 2-1-6-4 and a good hand. It goes 2♣-2♦3♦-3♥3NT-4NT quant. What are your options now if-you think you have slam on-you don't think you have slam on? I am deliberately withholding the hand in order not to divert the discussion. (I do have an opinion of the matter but am curious of everyone's systemic treatments here) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
nigel_k Posted July 29, 2009 Report Share Posted July 29, 2009 Any bid is a slam try in diamonds. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mich-b Posted July 30, 2009 Report Share Posted July 30, 2009 Any bid (5♣,5♦) is accepting the invitation, and showing shape naturally in case a suit slam is better than 6NT. A jump to 6♦ would show strong preference for playing in that suit , asking pd not to convert to 6NT.Having said that , we play that if the 4NT bidder , bids 5NT over that (5m) we can pass and play there. If you dont think slam is on , you just Pass 4NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cRi cRi Posted July 30, 2009 Report Share Posted July 30, 2009 well, what would be the diff between 5 and 6 ♣ ? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mich-b Posted July 30, 2009 Report Share Posted July 30, 2009 5♣ is just 5-4 , 6♣ is 5-5 (or if you think thats impossible than a very strong 4 card suit - AKQx).Both accepting the invitation. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cRi cRi Posted July 30, 2009 Report Share Posted July 30, 2009 hum, to me 3♦ should show 6 cards with very rare exceptions, and on case where is it only 5 I dont think I would rebid 3nt well, maybe 3154 but, still, I dont think I bit 3♦ with many of this hands Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Phil Posted July 30, 2009 Report Share Posted July 30, 2009 4N logically shows a 3523, although 4522/4513 and perhaps weak 6♥ might be thrown in. 5♣ shows 4 and is forcing. We can't have 5-5 in the minors and rebid 3N. 5N is PAS. Probably 6 semi-solid diamonds and a doubleton heart. 6♣ is redundant, but if you wanted to make it four really good clubs, I suppose that could be worked out, but I would not want to spring it on my partner at the table. Such hands are the seeds of disaster, so don't try to improvise too much in these sequences. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cascade Posted July 30, 2009 Report Share Posted July 30, 2009 What are your options now if-you think you have slam on Bid 6NT, 6♦, 6♣ or perhaps 5NT (pick-a-slam). Some use the 5-level to show extra distribution. Some use it as Ace responses to ensure we are not off two aces. I use it when we are limited in distribution to show controls. We would consider the 3NT bid to limit our distribution - in other words this agreement always applies when the quantitative 4NT is a raise. Basically you need an agreement. -you don't think you have slam on Pass. I don't think I can offer to play 5minor after I have offered 3NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MartininBC Posted July 31, 2009 Report Share Posted July 31, 2009 If slam is on, bid 6N. If slam is not on, pass 4N. If you try for the diamond slam, disaster occurs: partner plays the hand! :P Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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