gdawg01 Posted July 21, 2009 Report Share Posted July 21, 2009 Hi all! A couple of basic 2/1 questions from what happened last night at the club. I dealt and picked up [hv=v=b&s=skxxhakqxxdxxxcxx]133|100|[/hv] and opened the bidding 1H Pard responded 1N (forcing). I am relatively new to 2/1 so I rebid 2H. Is this correct? If not - what is my best rebid here? After 2H, pard responded 3C. Is this forcing or passable? I took it as forcing and pushed him into 3N, which went down easily after neither of us had any spade stoppers. Thanks! Girish Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted July 21, 2009 Report Share Posted July 21, 2009 The normal rebid with this shape is 2♦. Some bid 2♣. 2♥ is understandable with this honor location but it does show a 6-card unambiguously. 3♣ shows long clubs and obviously a hand too weak for an immediate 2♣ response. So it can't be forcing. Not sure if you are allowed to bid on with a maximum and/or to correct to 3♥ if you have seven of them (maybe some of the experts here can tell you). Anyway, with this hand I would pass. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hrothgar Posted July 21, 2009 Report Share Posted July 21, 2009 Hi There Let's start with the easy question: Responder's 3♣ rebi shows a hand with long clubs that was too weak for an immediate GF 2♣ response. You have a minimum opening hand without a big club fit. Pass is by far the best option. Lets turn to the "correct" response to partner's forcing NT. Different players have different rebid styles after a forcing NT response. For example, many players in Poland use a treatment in which a 2♣ rebid only promises two clubs while a 2♦ response promises at least four diamonds. This is a perfectly reasonable style, but one that you need to discuss with partner. I suspect that a bidding poll would include votes for both 2♦ and 2♥ I prefer 2♦ - despite the egregious difference in suit quality - simply because I expect my AKQ of Hearts to take tricks regardless of whether we play in Hearts or Diamonds. A 2♥ rebid would normally promise 6 Hearts, and this doesn't look like the right hand to make an exception. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gdawg01 Posted July 21, 2009 Author Report Share Posted July 21, 2009 Thanks for the explanations, helene_t and hrothgar! Reading hrothgar's explanation, I realize I did not draw the "obvious" conclusion that pard's hand was too weak for an immediate GF 2C response. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted July 22, 2009 Report Share Posted July 22, 2009 Hi, instead of 2H, bid 2D (or 2C), rebidding the majorsuit should usually promise 6 cards.Some play, that 2D promises a 4 carder and have agreed, hat it is allowed to bid 2C with only 2 cards. 3C from your partner is nonforcing, hand with clubsand with forcing values would have bid 2C instead of 1NT.Depending on agreement 3C showes either a weak or an inv. hand with long clubs.Oppossite both hands you have an fairly easy pass. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jmcw Posted July 22, 2009 Report Share Posted July 22, 2009 Over 1NT, 2♥shows 6+ so thats out. With equal length in the minors rebid 2♣ so thats out. With longer ♦ than ♣ bid rebid 2♦ 3♣ is totally non forcing showing 9/11 points and at least 6♣....you should pass. Some also play the 3♣ a bit weaker the range is up to you. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Stephen Tu Posted July 22, 2009 Report Share Posted July 22, 2009 2♦ usually works out fine since partner will rarely pass w/ only 4 unless single/void heart. 2♣ by agreement is mainly so 2♦ can promise 4, allowing responder to pass more readily with weak hands 2 hearts + 4 diamonds (should still tend to false preference if 8+ pts since opener can still be quite strong). It also makes raising with 4 diamonds less risky. But it does occasionally lead to lousy contracts like if responder is weak 3-1-5-4, you play the 4-2 club fit instead of the 3-5 diamond fit. As for responder's 3c bid, it's really bad if it has to cover the entire range below a GF 2/1 call. A popular solution is to use invitational jump shifts, so that 1M-3♣ shows an invitational hand, so that this sequence starting with 1nt is strictly weak and non-invitational. Another way to go is to play that 2/1 followed by a rebid of the 2/1 suit after opener rebids 2 of his suit or lower is invitational only. Thus a 2/1 is only GF like 95% of the time rather than all the time. This means that with a real GF you have to probe with a different call instead. It does free up the jump shift for other uses though. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
fromageGB Posted July 22, 2009 Report Share Posted July 22, 2009 I agree with previous posts - definitely rebid a minor and definitely pass 3♣.With my regular partners I like 2♦ to be weakish with 4 cards, so bid 2♣, but I think you need an agreement before you try this. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Tola18 Posted July 25, 2009 Report Share Posted July 25, 2009 I agree with previous posts - definitely rebid a minor and definitely pass 3♣.With my regular partners I like 2♦ to be weakish with 4 cards, so bid 2♣, but I think you need an agreement before you try this. The beginner manuals on 2/1 says the rebid is the best minor; ie may be on 3 cards. OR 6 cards major. So unless discussed otherwise, 2d or possibly 2h on these strong hearts. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts
Join the conversation
You can post now and register later. If you have an account, sign in now to post with your account.