ArtK78 Posted July 14, 2009 Report Share Posted July 14, 2009 Even a 6th D and 3cM I waver. Can partner produce 4DT +my 3 trump tricks? That's for -1. Out the pan into the fire for me. Well, at IMPs I would pass 1♦x with 6 diamonds. Even if they make it the score is only 140. Overtricks are unlikely when I hold 6 diamonds, and I don't like my alternate actions. Matchpoints is a bigger problem, since -140 is likely to be very bad. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
marcD Posted July 14, 2009 Report Share Posted July 14, 2009 Interesting post . Only a beginner or someone looking to win a brilliancy prize would pass with this hand. I can see the logic but it all rests on responder not passing with an average/good balanced hand . I think it was Ed Manfield who wrote an article advocating passing with good hand lacking clear direction in BW a few years ago. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Apollo81 Posted July 14, 2009 Report Share Posted July 14, 2009 Partner could just as easily have had a void or small singleton diamond. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
petergreat Posted July 16, 2009 Report Share Posted July 16, 2009 1000% 1♠.You never pass a 1-level takeout double without something like 3.5 trump tricks. You have 1 at most, so it would be quite mad. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Hanoi5 Posted July 16, 2009 Report Share Posted July 16, 2009 I believe this is a beginner's pass. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
benlessard Posted July 16, 2009 Report Share Posted July 16, 2009 few RHO will pass 1Dx with short diamonds and 5+ pts. So therefore opener is likely to have a balanced 18-19 pts and partner got a pretty big hand over him, 2- or that opener has an unbalanced hand and partner got a monster 3- or that opener got a big unbalanced hands. in the 1st 2 case passing make sense in the 1st 1DX is a fair shot while in the 2nd if you bid 1S partner will jump to an unmakable game or to 3S/2Nt. In the 3rd youll give away some overtricks. I would bid 1S but understad why passing might work. Also its easier to pass if opps play weak nt here... (so that the 1D opening can even be 15-17 bal) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jjbrr Posted July 16, 2009 Report Share Posted July 16, 2009 opener had a normal 13 count Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
xcurt Posted July 16, 2009 Report Share Posted July 16, 2009 Both opponents should have bid out, but it's harder for opener on the actual hand, since he needs redouble to be a running noise instead of "let's punish the opponents." 1NT by the opponents would have made or been down 1 in practice. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cherdanno Posted July 17, 2009 Report Share Posted July 17, 2009 opener had a normal 13 count but he didnt have a pass Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted July 17, 2009 Report Share Posted July 17, 2009 Both opponents should have bid out, but it's harder for opener on the actual hand, since he needs redouble to be a running noise instead of "let's punish the opponents." Why's that hard? I thought the whole world played redouble by opener as SOS. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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