paulg Posted July 12, 2009 Report Share Posted July 12, 2009 [hv=d=n&v=e&s=st9xxxhxdxxxcqjxx]133|100|Scoring: IMP1♣ (1♥) Pass (4♥)Dbl (Pass) ?[/hv]You are at favourable vulnerability at teams. Is partner's double an invitation to bid or demanding a pass? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted July 12, 2009 Report Share Posted July 12, 2009 It's an invitation to bid. I choose 4♠. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mikeh Posted July 12, 2009 Report Share Posted July 12, 2009 it is not a penalty double: certainly, he thinks that he can take 4 plus tricks, but not based on trumps.. and opposite most of the hands he will have, our probable double fit means not only that he may have over-estimated his defence, but also that we may well score very nicely in 4♠ Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cherdanno Posted July 12, 2009 Report Share Posted July 12, 2009 4♠ wtp. Wtp in the sense that it would not have occurred to me that anyone plays this double as anything but "takeout (willing to defend in case partner is balanced)". Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
655321 Posted July 12, 2009 Report Share Posted July 12, 2009 In answer to the thread title, no, this is Someone Else's Problem.I bid 1♠ on the previous round. With a singleton heart, 5 spades, and a big fit for partner I don't consider it close. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jlall Posted July 12, 2009 Report Share Posted July 12, 2009 Agree with obv 1S and obv 4S. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mtvesuvius Posted July 13, 2009 Report Share Posted July 13, 2009 No, I did not come up with this problem. Yes, this is a wtp 4♠. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Codo Posted July 13, 2009 Report Share Posted July 13, 2009 agree with obv. pass and 4♠. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cascade Posted July 13, 2009 Report Share Posted July 13, 2009 takeout Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
OleBerg Posted July 13, 2009 Report Share Posted July 13, 2009 1♠ at my first chance. Now it depends on agreements. With an unknown partner of more than intermidiate status, I would expect it to be take-out, making 4♠ obvious. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted July 13, 2009 Report Share Posted July 13, 2009 If this is a 1♠ bid on the first round (and I'm not saying it isn't), what does pass followed by 4♠ look like? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
OleBerg Posted July 13, 2009 Report Share Posted July 13, 2009 If this is a 1♠ bid on the first round (and I'm not saying it isn't), what does pass followed by 4♠ look like?Maybe: ♠ T9xxx♥ xxx♦ DBxx♣ x Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted July 13, 2009 Report Share Posted July 13, 2009 If this is a 1♠ bid on the first round (and I'm not saying it isn't), what does pass followed by 4♠ look like? For me DNE. If someone did it to me, I'd play them for something like this, but 5-5. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ArtK78 Posted July 13, 2009 Report Share Posted July 13, 2009 Agree with Pass and then 4♠. I do not understand making a free bid on this hand over 1♥. But I see this all the time in these Fora. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted July 13, 2009 Report Share Posted July 13, 2009 Agree with Pass and then 4♠. I do not understand making a free bid on this hand over 1♥. But I see this all the time in these Fora. Welcome to 2009. For that matter, welcome to 1999. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
OleBerg Posted July 13, 2009 Report Share Posted July 13, 2009 Agree with Pass and then 4♠. I do not understand making a free bid on this hand over 1♥. But I see this all the time in these Fora.In the preface to his book "To bid or not to bid" Larry Cohen tells how he asked Bob Hamman to comment on the manuscript. Hamman simply scratched out "or not to bid". But seriously; the key to understand 1♠, is to consider how unlikely it is to get hurt, and how likely it is to gain a profit. If partner has a balanced hand, you will seldom get into trouble (Unless partner partner can be 15-17 bal. in which case you need some agreements to slow him down), and if partner has an unbalanced hand with 5+ clubs, your playing strength surely warrants competing, often even to the 3-level. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted July 13, 2009 Report Share Posted July 13, 2009 If this is a 1♠ bid on the first round (and I'm not saying it isn't), what does pass followed by 4♠ look like? For me DNE. If someone did it to me, I'd play them for something like this, but 5-5. Sorry, I meant what sort of hand would pass 1♥, then bid 4♠ in response to partner's double of 4♥? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted July 13, 2009 Report Share Posted July 13, 2009 Actually I understood your question but I didn't see the double at the time I answered. I might pass over 1♥ with Qxxxx xxx xxx xx and then bid 4♠. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MFA Posted July 13, 2009 Report Share Posted July 13, 2009 Partner's double of 4♥ is for take-out. So this is a non-problem. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dake50 Posted July 14, 2009 Report Share Posted July 14, 2009 Did I have a fit-bid 2S over 1H? This is weak for that action and need to slow partner from slamming but may find double fit. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Codo Posted July 14, 2009 Report Share Posted July 14, 2009 Agree with Pass and then 4♠. I do not understand making a free bid on this hand over 1♥. But I see this all the time in these Fora. But seriously; the key to understand 1♠, is to consider how unlikely it is to get hurt, and how likely it is to gain a profit. If partner has a balanced hand, you will seldom get into trouble (Unless partner partner can be 15-17 bal. in which case you need some agreements to slow him down), and if partner has an unbalanced hand with 5+ clubs, your playing strength surely warrants competing, often even to the 3-level. You are oversimplyfing. When you bid one spade with this hand and with a hand with full values, you may get hurt badly.Not when you have a fit, but when you do not have one at once. Let the bidding be:1♣ (1♥) 1♠ (4♥) And partner has a good hand with about 2 or 3 tricks against heart but no spade fit and no self sufficent club suit. WHat shall he do? Double? Pass? Opposite the Arts and mes of this world, he can easily double because he knows that 1 ♠ promies at least some values. I do not want to compare the pros and cons of the new and the ancient approach, but up to now I see these bids with realy weak hands more in the fora and in junior bridge then in senior competions. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted July 14, 2009 Report Share Posted July 14, 2009 But seriously; the key to understand 1♠, is to consider how unlikely it is to get hurt, and how likely it is to gain a profit. If partner has a balanced hand, you will seldom get into trouble If partner has 12-14 balanced you'll probably be OK. If, on the other hand, he has 18-19 balanced, it will go 1♣ 1♥ 1♠ pass 2NTThe only good thing about this sequence is that we're not vulnerable. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cherdanno Posted July 14, 2009 Report Share Posted July 14, 2009 But seriously; the key to understand 1♠, is to consider how unlikely it is to get hurt, and how likely it is to gain a profit. If partner has a balanced hand, you will seldom get into trouble If partner has 12-14 balanced you'll probably be OK. If, on the other hand, he has 18-19 balanced, it will go 1♣ 1♥ 1♠ pass 2NTThe only good thing about this sequence is that we're not vulnerable. I would say this counts as "seldom". Seldom compared to how often we may gain competitively when partner is unbalanced. (If we play 3♣ over 2N as non-forcing, I don't even see the problem.) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted July 14, 2009 Report Share Posted July 14, 2009 I would say this counts as "seldom". Seldom compared to how often we may gain competitively when partner is unbalanced.I thought we were talking about the risk of getting into trouble given that partner is balanced? Obviously if you include the unbalanced hands the overall probability of this situation is reduced, though it's hard to estimate the relative probabilities.(If we play 3♣ over 2N as non-forcing, I don't even see the problem.)In how many partnership do you play 3♣ as non-forcing? I'm not suggesting that you shouldn't bid 1♠ - I'd bid it - but I don't think we should dismiss the disadvantages. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
quiddity Posted July 15, 2009 Report Share Posted July 15, 2009 How far would you take this bid? Last night I held T87xxx xx xx Q9x on the same auction and tried 1S. It was not a success (partner had the 18-19 1444 hand). Edited: sorry, 1435. After she jumped to 2nt there wasn't much to be done (except count myself lucky she didn't try 3nt). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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