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This is a nice sequence for understanding serious 3NT (if you play that, or non-serious if you play that) better.

 

IMO, if the responder to RKCB has shown non-serious interest, then a 5 response should be forcing when hearts are agreed. If the person asking cannot force with that response, then he cues instead.

 

That said, with 6-5 and a void in the unbid suit, how can West pass? Even if 5 waqs a signoff, I'd bid again after having shown non-serious interest.

 

If 3NT is neither serious nor non-serious, this is tougher.

 

Oh, and if 3NT would have been non-serious, then East, I suppose. A "serious" 4 with only one key card is a big bid.

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95% east

 

Admittedly, it wouldn't occur to me to cue a void at my 3rd turn with West's hand (hence the 5%), but even so, east made a weird 5 call... he must have thought that west had something like Kxxxx Qxxx AQx x... and surely no-one cues with that?

 

Seriously: I strongly recommend against one's initial cue being shortness unless the auction is clearly a power auction, and this one isn't... east's 3 is a mild slam try, no more.

 

I would simply raise 3 to 4... for slam, we need help in spades, clubs, and trump.... while we may miss the odd slam when he has all of that, because he is afraid of diamond losers, we will survive most of the time... and it is not as if we have a huge hand, despite it having got stronger on the auction.

 

BTW, the time, in this auction, to cue the shortness, would be if partner, over 4 cued in spades, or, indeed, in clubs.

 

Over 4, east has several ways to bid... thus, he could cue spades (for me that would be via 4N, but for many, it would be 4). One reason to consider that route, rather than most people's knee jerk keycard, is that keycard isn't always going to tell you about the spade Queen...picture Kxxxx AJxx Axx x as opposed to KQxxx Axxx Axx x... the former is a bad slam, the latter is much better.

 

OTOH, if you expect an all the keycard response, then partner can bid the grand with the KQxxx in spades after you tell him that you have all the keys... and, realistically, after a 1 keycard response, can we afford not to bid small slam?

 

On the actual hand, opener can jump to 6 to announce one key with a diamond void... but we need an agreement as to whether we deliver the heart Queen when we do this... I think we should... with one and a void and no queen, downgrade and supress the void.. but this is a matter for agreement. It makes no difference here, in all likelihood, but imagine responder with AQx KJxx Kxx AKx

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East didn't bid a slam opposite an opening bid (knowing he wasn't off two aces or an AK). I think blaming him for how he didn't bid a slam opposite an opening bid is a little moot, although the points are mostly true.
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:rolleyes: West opens// and makes a slam try with his 4 cue and shows up with 1 ace and all east can then do with his 21 HCP is fail to bid the slam :o :unsure: !!

 

I don't like 4333 hands but here, East is 100% to blame and if he has any doubt, his fitting honors combined with the fact that PD made a slam try should let him know that slam really has to be favorite.

 

100% EAST

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East should bid 6S. Because of the extras tricks in the minors pitching 2H is possible. So its pretty hard to construct a hand where 6H is better than 6S.

 

As for finding a cold 7 its pretty tough even if East is can check for sure that west has a D void.

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I don't know their methods, but East made a slam try with 3 Heart.

 

West bid 4 Diamond? So he denied a control in any black suit? Did he open Qxxxx, QJxx, AQx,xx?

 

In this case 5 Heart can be a nice spot as you need to play the spades for no loser, which is less then 50 %.

 

Okay, now, when you play methods where 3 had shown first round control OR two tops in your own suit, I would understand his bids and the comments so far.

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I don't know their methods, but East made a slam try with 3 Heart.

 

West bid 4 Diamond? So he denied a control in any black suit? Did he open Qxxxx, QJxx, AQx,xx?

 

In this case 5 Heart can be a nice spot as you need to play the spades for no loser, which is less then 50 %.

 

Okay, now, when you play methods where 3 had shown first round control OR two tops in your own suit, I would understand his bids and the comments so far.

You just cannot argue with that logic. But sitting there with 21 points after partner has opened and a choice of both major suits for game, how many would pass?

 

The analysis is undeniable and would love to see this hand played in a top class event to see the results. (I should add the actual hand being substituted by your interpretation)

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