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What has partner got?


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[hv=d=e&v=e&s=sj852haj1062dj10cq10]133|100|Scoring: IMP

E S W N

2 p p 3

p 4 p 4

dbl p p 5

p ? [/hv]

 

You are playing Lebensohl and Leaping Michaels. Questions:

 

1. Would you bid 4 after partner's cue bid of 3 which you take to be asking for a stop?

2. When partner bids 4, what kind of hand is he showing?

3. Would you raise to 6?

4. How would you show partner a powerful 0175 shape?

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1) I would bid 3NT.

2) I would assume a very strong 1-suiter.

3) Pass would be terrible. The question should be more like if we are worth a grand slam try. But I'll settle for 6.

4) 4 and 4NT are both for the minors in the first round, 4 being the stronger. One can pull 5 to diamonds to show shapes like that.

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Hi,

 

#1 if 3S asks for a stopper, I show the stopper, i.e. I bid 3NT

#2 slam try for hearts, most likely shortage

#3 no, bid 5H, 5D denies a club control

#4 either show both minors via 4NT or forget about the 5 card

suit, i.e. double followed by bidding diamonds at a appropriate

level

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

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When partner asks if you have a stopper, and you do... bid 3N. Even if he is void, so long as spades are 3=6, and they rate to be given LHO's pass, they can never take more than the first 3 tricks in the suit, so you have a stopper.

 

As it is, when partner bid 4, he has an enormous hand, but I disagree that it is clear what kind of hand he has.... I would need to know, for instance, what an immediate, balancing 4 would be.

 

When 4x'd came around to him, he had options.. he could have redoubled, or bid 4N.. both of which would, in my view, reveal a 2-suiter... the distinction is not something I have ever discussed with partners. With a massive 7=5, for example, he'd show the 2-suiter and then pull clubs to diamonds.

 

So I think 5 is the huge one-suiter.. and I would raise.

 

I agree with Helene, in that if we had, for example, the same hand with a spade suit headed by that non-stopper, the 'x', I would have bid 4[CL... it is almost good enough to insist on game... but not quite.

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I feel you have to have an understanding of what the 4♠ bid represents? To me this looks to be asking partner to define his hand further, why not go straight to 5 with a massive hand and no interest in ? But too counter that, what possible hand can partner have in to bypass 4NT, when known to be missing the A? The only thing that makes any possible sense to me would be a very strong hand, void and looking for first round control in and .

 

 

 

 

Interesting point regarding playing in 3NT. If you receive a lead from 10xx and a small return, who would get that right?

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