can any one answer this

[pirate22]

in the old days if one was ply Acol 12-14 1n/t

 

if pard opens 1cl--- pass and pard replies 1n/t it = 8-10 points no 4 card major

1 D-- 1n/t = 7-9 points " "

 

no one ever explained the reason,for the difference

 

So with todays sys sayc/acol does it still apply regards

[helene_t]

1♣-1NT is 8-10 because with 6-7 you could bid 1♦ (occasionally on less than four diamonds, say 3=3=3=4) planing to pass opener's 1♥ or 1♠ rebid. Thereby you avoid wrongsiding notrump contract, avoid playing 1NT with less than half the points, and avoid coming too high when opener invites with a balanced 15-16 count.

 

1♦-1NT is 6-9 since with less than 10 you can't bid anything else. With 10 you can bid 2♣. When 1NT is limited to 9 opener doesn't have to invite with 15, which would take you too high when you have 6.

[Jlall]

lol, I was thinking, "This is the most reasonable post from pirate I've ever seen!"

 

Then I saw it was posted in interesting bridge hands.

 

Well played pirate, well played.

[gnasher]

Playing Acol (ie four-card minors) without inverted raises, holding a 3334 shape and 5-7 points, you can raise 1♣ to 2♣. With a weakish hand there is no reason to think that 1NT will play better than the known 8-card fit. In the UK many players still play the same way.

 

In Standard American, 2/1, or Acol with inverted raises, many people do as Helene describes, bidding 1♦ on this hand-type. I don't think that was part of old-fashioned Acol.

[pirate22]

a small further comment--without inverted raises,would Sayc today know

1cl (can be short)- p- pard 1n/t= 8-10 no 4 c major etc, also 1d-p-1nt=7/9,??

and agree Sayc 2/1 the 1 n/t has other meanings,as in precision

regards