the hog Posted June 2, 2009 Report Share Posted June 2, 2009 Not my problem, but I am curious as to what you think. What sort of hand do you think justifies this bidding? Pass…..1S…….Double…Redble3NT……Pass….Pass…..Dble4C......4S......Pass.....Passx.....All Pass (Slight edit - apologies to Ole) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
OleBerg Posted June 2, 2009 Report Share Posted June 2, 2009 Bluff or some strange semi-bluff. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cherdanno Posted June 2, 2009 Report Share Posted June 2, 2009 3NT showed the minors. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted June 2, 2009 Report Share Posted June 2, 2009 3NT showed the minors. Yes. The other possibility is natural, exposing a psyche, but that hand would normally pass and then act. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cherdanno Posted June 2, 2009 Report Share Posted June 2, 2009 3NT showed the minors. Yes. The other possibility is natural, exposing a psyche, but that hand would normally pass and then act. The 3NT bidder is a passed hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
OleBerg Posted June 2, 2009 Report Share Posted June 2, 2009 3NT showed the minors. No. You have sanctuary in 3NT. Unless you have another firm agreement, 3NT is to play. So when you bid 4C you have bluffed or semi-bluffed. When you double 4♠, your semi-bluff contained long spades. (Apology accepted.) :( Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted June 2, 2009 Report Share Posted June 2, 2009 This is the "impossible 3NT" convention described in Bergen's "Points, Schmoints". It shows minors. Not sure what opener has. He passed 3NT but then he acted immediately over 4♣, so even if I knew whether pass-and-pull is strong or weak, I would still be confused. My guess is that he was happy to defend 3NT undoubled (maybe he thought it was natural, and/or that his LHO would take it as natural), and now he believes he is in an FP situation so he shows a weak hand with seven spades. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted June 2, 2009 Report Share Posted June 2, 2009 Unless you have another firm agreement, 3NT is to play. You don't need agreements for obvious things. (2NT) 3NT 2NT = 20-22. What is 3NT? Certainly not to play. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kfay Posted June 2, 2009 Report Share Posted June 2, 2009 When you can't even bid 1NT over the Rdbl naturally I don't see why you should be able to bid 3NT naturally. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
akhare Posted June 2, 2009 Report Share Posted June 2, 2009 My guess is that he was happy to defend 3NT undoubled (maybe he thought it was natural, and/or that his LHO would take it as natural), and now he believes he is in an FP situation so he shows a weak hand with seven spades. Agree with Helene -- my best guess would be a weakish 7-4 hand with the majors or some hand with long ♠ that can't withstand a X of 4♣... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jlall Posted June 2, 2009 Report Share Posted June 2, 2009 Unless you have another firm agreement, 3NT is to play. You don't need agreements for obvious things. (2NT) 3NT 2NT = 20-22. What is 3NT? Certainly not to play. Wow this is the best post you've ever made ;) Wd. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mtvesuvius Posted June 2, 2009 Report Share Posted June 2, 2009 Unless you have another firm agreement, 3NT is to play. You don't need agreements for obvious things. (2NT) 3NT 2NT = 20-22. What is 3NT? Certainly not to play. Wow this is the best post you've ever made ;) Wd. Lall? LOL Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
OleBerg Posted June 2, 2009 Report Share Posted June 2, 2009 Unless you have another firm agreement, 3NT is to play. You don't need agreements for obvious things. (2NT) 3NT 2NT = 20-22. What is 3NT? Certainly not to play. Okay, there might be a few exceptions. So let me rephrase: If there is the slightest possibility that 3NT could be to play, then it is to play, unless you have another firm agreement. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted June 3, 2009 Report Share Posted June 3, 2009 Dealer passes. He lacks an opening bid.2nd seat opens 1♠. He has an opening bid.3rd seat doubles. He has the other three suits.4th seat redoubles. He has stuff.Dealer bids 3NT. He has the minors.2nd seat passes. Doubling 3NT would be different than a pass. Probably thinking about slam.3rd seat passes. Could be that he's clueless. Could be that he thinks the opponents are clueless. Could be his way of asking partner to pick.4th seat doubles. Inclined to penalize something.Dealer bids 4♣. He picks clubs, or he thinks partner is clueless and ain't redoubling.2nd seat bids 4♠. His slam aspirations are gone.3rd seat passes. Just nothing to bid.4th seat passes. Just nothing to bid.Dealer doubles. He wants to sac but is giving partner an option.2nd seat passes. What else?3rd seat passes. He opts to defend.4th seat passes. What else? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted June 3, 2009 Author Report Share Posted June 3, 2009 3NT bidder was AxxvoidQ9xxxJTxxx She meant this as a sort of unusual NTThe other possibility that was discussed, was that this hand coud have something like QxxxxxxAQxxxxxand did not want to pre empt because of the side 4 card S suit.Maybe sme of you saw this hand in the Cayne match last weekend. Cathy Chua - former Aust international held the 5-5 hand with her long time partner. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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