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4522, p opens 1nt


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[hv=d=n&v=n&s=sj9xxhkj9xxdtxcqx]133|100|Scoring: IMP

1nt - (p) - ??[/hv]

 

We play 2/1, 15-17NT agreed to use smolen convention.

With this hand:

Do you transfer to ? Then do you invite when p completes transfer?

Or do you bid stayman here? If partner bids 2, do you use smolen, or 2 (nonforcing)? Do you pass/invite/bid game if p bids 2 or 2?

 

Thanks in advance!!

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If p responds 2 to Stayman, 2 is enough. If he responds 2 I would invite. If he responds 2 I pass.

While it makes me feel just a tad wimpy, I agree 100%. Now if my 10 we a I'd like my hand better and be more inclined to invite over 2.

 

I think this is a great hand for a sim. .. neilkaz ..

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