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How do you bid diamonds?


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[hv=d=w&v=n&n=shak542dt95ckqt98&w=skq987hqj93dq7caj&e=sajt643ht86dc7653&s=s52h7dakj86432c42]399|300|Scoring: IMP[/hv]

 

West North East South

 

1 2! 4 ?

 

2 is hearts and a minor.

 

How does south bid a suit of her own here?

 

If 5 is natural then what would you do if you had clubs?

 

TIA

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Not sure if anyone else would agree with me, but a bid of 4NT here is what's your minor, 5C/D = I want to play here, please shut up, unless this is your minor, in which case with good controls you may bid 6.

 

It does irritate me when partners correct 5C/D to 5H or 6 other minor in these positions.

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Nice to see something in these forum that doesn´t have ZAR somewhere.

 

Oh no! now it does! :-(

 

5 should show .

 

Probably Misho has already agreed that 5 is own suit while 4NT asks for the minor :). I didn´t and I am unable to show my 8-card suit in when I get it on this sequence.

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Nice to see something in these forum that doesn´t have ZAR somewhere.

 

Oh no! now it does! :-(

 

5 should show .

 

Probably Misho has already agreed that 5 is own suit while 4NT asks for the minor  :). I didn´t and I am unable to show my 8-card suit in when I get it on this sequence.

Hi Gonzalo!

Actually no. We play with Ben like Ghestem, but include Hi-Lo 2 suiter in 1NT raptor. Our 2 show exactly - 2 suiter and 4NT will be slam try with support, while 5 will be slam try with support. 5/5 are competitive. DBL is still under discussion, but is clear not penalty and I suppose we will use it as own suit (like we use RDBL if our 2 was doubled)

or/and bid your better suit p.

 

Hi Wayne!

 

I am very happy because you raise this discussion. Can we begin another thread, where we will discuss several very interesting imo continuations after 2 suited bid by partner? There are several different situations and their combinations:

2 suits known and same (majors or minors)(1-2, 1M-2NT, 2 suited dbl...)

2 suits known and not same (M-m) - (1m-2NT, 2 suited dbl...)

1 suit known, 1 unknown (1NT raptor, 1-2 Michaels...)

 

For all above situations need to determine 2NT(3,4) and dbl/rdbl if they are available too. Do you like same discussion friend? I think will be helpful for all us, becuase nebulous continuations here by bidding theory, at least what I know.

 

About your question, depend you asking about partnership agreement(1) or playing with random partner(2). I will answer about 2.

Because 2NT bid is normally use as "show me your minor" I will suppose my p will take my 4NT similar way (yes Gonzalo :) ). He will probably take my 5/5 as natural, so I will bid in examle .

 

Misho

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I don't agree with Michael's on this hand, it's intermediate, so 2 is a better bid. This said and done, 4NT is "bid your minor", so 5m is to play, even if p is void. 5 it is.
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I don't agree with Michael's on this hand, it's intermediate, so 2 is a better bid. This said and done, 4NT is "bid your minor", so 5m is to play, even if p is void. 5 it is.

Hi Frederick!

Depend of style you play 2 suiters. By old way yes, not right hand for michaels. By modern way with continue ranges near opening hand(can be by distribution) or more, the way I play them with Ben, it is right hand for Michaels. The reason is to not show your distribution in hands, where opps are expected to play. This method is normaly combined with very weak overcalls. Stronger hands go through take out double/michaels and rebid of suit, which is not so strong and is NF. This is actual modern style in Europe. But nothing new, hehe, Culbertson strike back B)

Misho

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Nice to see something in these forum that doesn´t have ZAR somewhere.

On that matter I agree with you Gonzalo B)

 

It would be very strange to play 5 = pass or correct. What would then the meaning of 4NT be, 4-ace blackwood?

btw I think 2 is OK with your hand.

 

/Robert

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