gwnn Posted May 10, 2009 Report Share Posted May 10, 2009 KxxxKQxxA9xxx- Unfav Mp's 1NT-p-2♣-xxx-2♦-X-pp-3♣-??? 1NT was 14-16. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hanp Posted May 10, 2009 Report Share Posted May 10, 2009 Double, partner showed 5 clubs. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trinidad Posted May 10, 2009 Report Share Posted May 10, 2009 I more or less agree with Han, but: Pass, partner can bid his own hand. (Works better if partner didn't have 5 clubs. :)) Rik Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Hanoi5 Posted May 10, 2009 Report Share Posted May 10, 2009 Pass and let partner decide. He probably should double. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Codo Posted May 11, 2009 Report Share Posted May 11, 2009 pass obv. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cherdanno Posted May 11, 2009 Report Share Posted May 11, 2009 Easier to take 6 tricks in clubs than to take 8 tricks in clubs? Double. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted May 11, 2009 Report Share Posted May 11, 2009 Agree with pass. A dbl by us should show at least a singleton there. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gwnn Posted May 14, 2009 Author Report Share Posted May 14, 2009 pard had AQJ9ATxxxA9xx How would you have bid this pretty good slam? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Phil Posted May 14, 2009 Report Share Posted May 14, 2009 pard had AQJ9ATxxxA9xx How would you have bid this pretty good slam? xx? Did you have a special agreement here? By the way I pass 3♣. We are in a forcing sequence. I don't need to bid pard's hand. Yes I'm aware that we have extras. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hanp Posted May 14, 2009 Report Share Posted May 14, 2009 Apparently we do need to bid partner's hand because partner sure isn't doing it! I don't understand why we would pass. We know what partner has (clubs), partner does not know what we have (points). Maybe it is best to play pass NF, I cannot imagine partner bidding over 3C after having redoubled 2C. Of course, I am assuming that we are not playing with a complete beginner. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted May 14, 2009 Report Share Posted May 14, 2009 [hv=v=e&w=saqj9hatxdxxca9xx&e=skxxxhkqxxda9xxxc]266|100|Scoring: MP[/hv]How would you have bid this pretty good slam?1NT 2♣ (dbl)2♠ 4♣4♥ 4♠5♣ 5♦6♠ Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trinidad Posted May 14, 2009 Report Share Posted May 14, 2009 pard had AQJ9ATxxxA9xx How would you have bid this pretty good slam?By making the normal response to Stayman. (Do I need to say that that should be 2♠?) After: 1NT-Pass-2♣-X; 2♠-Pass-4♣ we are pretty much in slam already. Rik Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rbforster Posted May 14, 2009 Report Share Posted May 14, 2009 I don't understand why we would pass. We know what partner has (clubs), partner does not know what we have (points). Yes, partner does know we have a good hand when we doubled 2♦ for penalty. While 2♣ could have been meant as garbage stayman that hand would not make any free bids later. Otherwise, all our stayman hands show at least invitational values. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hanp Posted May 14, 2009 Report Share Posted May 14, 2009 We can't double 2D with an 8-count? 7-count? Partner has clubs behind the club doubler, we have diamonds behind the diamond bidder and they have a misfit. No way partner knows that we have a big hand and they are about to get slaughtered. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Phil Posted May 14, 2009 Report Share Posted May 14, 2009 We can't double 2D with an 8-count? 7-count? Partner has clubs behind the club doubler, we have diamonds behind the diamond bidder and they have a misfit. No way partner knows that we have a big hand and they are about to get slaughtered. Let's start with the premise that this auction is a train wreck. Redoubling with A9xx is a joke. Clearly we are in a forcing auction and its not because partner doubled 2♣. It's because I hit 2♦. I am not as concerned about taking 3♣ for a ride to 500 or 800 land. I'm concerned about missing slam. If anything, I think you can make the argument (I suppose I am), that my double of 3♣ is a relatively weak action, in the framework of a forcing pass sequence. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hanp Posted May 15, 2009 Report Share Posted May 15, 2009 Worried about missing slam? We have a combined 26-28 count and we have a misfit, partner has shown length and values in the suit where we are void. Partner is very unlikely to have a 4-card major and RHO has bid our 5-card suit. I wonder if you had been worried about slam if you hadn't seen the hand that partner held when he doubled. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cascade Posted May 15, 2009 Report Share Posted May 15, 2009 [hv=v=e&w=saqj9hatxdxxca9xx&e=skxxxhkqxxda9xxxc]266|100|Scoring: MP[/hv]How would you have bid this pretty good slam? 1NT 3♦ - no double now :P3♠ 4♣ (let them double after we have found our fit)XX 4♦4♥ 4♠4NT 5♥6♠ 3♦ diamonds short clubs might have a major 4♣ spade fit and extras - please cue XX first round control (Ace given the shortage shown and NT opening) 4♦ 1st/2nd 4♥ 1st/2nd 4NT RKCB 5♥ 2 without 6♠ Don't investigate grand since responder is limited after 4♠ With a lead directing double ... 1NT 3♦ 3♠ 4♣ 4♥ 4♠5♣ 5♦6♠ 5♣ extras and ♣A Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted May 15, 2009 Report Share Posted May 15, 2009 Well.. if pard redoubled 2♣ with A9xx and an obvious 2♠ spade bid, it's not gonna be an easy slam to bid :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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