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basic 2/1 question


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In basic 2/1, this is a GF sequence, but you need some mechanism to handle 9-11 point hands with clubs. The most popular solution is to play 1 - 3 as invitational with 6.

 

The subject hand is an easy 2N call. Hopefully you play this as invitational.

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Yes, this is one of the troubles with 1D-2C if 2C is GF with something like xx xxx Q(J/x)x AKJTx. The hand in question like the others have said can bid 2NT natural and invitational (which you can do too I suppose on the hand I gave notwithstanding anything else). After 1m-2NT invite, might be nice to add in some gadget to locate a shortage in opener's hand so you don't get to 3NT with a suit wide open.
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Yes, this is one of the troubles with 1D-2C if 2C is GF with something like xx xxx Q(J/x)x AKJTx. The hand in question like the others have said can bid 2NT natural and invitational (which you can do too I suppose on the hand I gave notwithstanding anything else). After 1m-2NT invite, might be nice to add in some gadget to locate a shortage in opener's hand so you don't get to 3NT with a suit wide open.

Be a man and bid 1 with that!

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or be a mouse and bid the normal bid... 1

Wow. And I thought I was crazy. I'd never think of bidding my doubleton here.

 

I could buy 1NT, because that sounds exactly right, but that seems so mundane.

 

1, on the other hand, is so exotic and sexy that I am mad that I missed it.

 

<_<

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Yes, this is one of the troubles with 1D-2C if 2C is GF with something like xx xxx Q(J/x)x AKJTx.

An inverted 2 raise isn't out of the question. Partner will focus on his major stoppers, often bidding 2N (which is probably better than you bidding it). He's unlikely to insist on diamonds without 5, so this seems relatively safe. You won't get to clubs easily, but you probably won't bidding 2N either.

 

Alternative - open light enough that partner's troubling invitational hand is forced to have more strength/honors and hence be better suited to NT ;).

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Some years ago, I went to a local sectional with a friend of mine. We had not played together before, but we agreed "2/1" and talked about a few things, but not 1 - 2. The auction game up, we got a bad board, and in the car on the way home he informed me that 2 in that auction is not game forcing, ever. No way, no how. I still think he was wrong, and that it's something that requires discussion and explicit agreement. He still thinks he was right. ;)
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We play 1D-2C as GF.

With the subject hand we bid 1NT (defined as 6-11), accepting occasionally missing game when opener has 14, but gaining when opener is minimum , and we stop low when only 7 tricks are makeable (not so rare).

 

When opener is unbalanced 15+ , he will of course bid again.

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Is 1 - 2 game forcing in basic 2/1?

 

In other words, what does responder bid over 1 with

 

AKx   xxx   xx   KJxxx ?

1) no one knows.........good point to discuss in basic

2) I play I must bid nonforcing 1nt with your example hand.

 

If you are going to play 2/1 np but discuss:

1) how junky is opening bid first and second seat

2) what does 2/1 game force promise..example....11 or 14?

3) sorry but i find these other posts not very helpful.

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or be a mouse and bid the normal bid... 1

Wow. And I thought I was crazy. I'd never think of bidding my doubleton here...

AKx istn't that much of doubleton for me

Ah, but I was bidding 1 as a Responder who was said to have xx xxx Q(J/x)x AKJTx, if you check.

 

I'll agfree, though, that AKx would not be a doubleton.

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This bid came up in our club last month and we had at leasts ten different opinions on it by 2/1 players.

 

Intrigued, I volunteered to research it == and consulted books by more than half a dozen pros.

 

Found half a dozen opinions. None agreed in total.

 

As a GF, it falls back on partnership agreement.

 

My usual partners and I decided that 1 D or 1 M, 2 C, 2 anything, 3 C would not be GF.

 

I haven't had enough experience since then to find out if this really works.

 

love

joan

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