jocdelevat Posted April 30, 2009 Report Share Posted April 30, 2009 I bid 1nt pard asks if was not better to open 1 of minor instead. Do you open 1 of a minor with this hand changed had a 4 cards in minor instead of major? Dealer: West Vul: NS Scoring: IMP ♠ A982 ♥ AT4 ♦ A97 ♣ A42 West North East South Pass Pass Pass 1NT Pass Pass Pass ........................................................................................................................I bid 1s here however pard ask whats the reason to bid 1s over pard 1h? Dealer: North Vul: All Scoring: IMP ♠ AKT5 ♥ 97 ♦ AQ9 ♣ 9832 West North East South - 1♥ Pass 1♠ Pass 2♥ Pass 2NT Pass 3NT Pass Pass Pass ........................................................................................................................do you bid 1s here ? i bid 2c Dealer: North Vul: EW Scoring: IMP ♠ JT98 ♥ K4 ♦ K2 ♣ KQ975 West North East South - Pass Pass 1♣ Pass 1♥ Pass 2♣ Pass Pass Pass Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
neilkaz Posted April 30, 2009 Report Share Posted April 30, 2009 Hand 1) 1NT of course Hand 2) Of course 1♠ for the search for a 4-4 major fit Hand 3) Of course 1♠ again looking for the 4-4 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Phil Posted April 30, 2009 Report Share Posted April 30, 2009 1. 16 and a 4333? Sure, we might want pard to declarer with Aces and spaces (or not - we do have A9 A9 AT). Try to describe your hand to pard as best you can and open 1N. 2. 1♠ is fine. 2N is a mild underbid compared to 3N and 4♥. I prefer 4♥ by a nose. 3. 1♠ is clear, not 2♣. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Stephen Tu Posted April 30, 2009 Report Share Posted April 30, 2009 Hand 1 -- the problem with not opening 1nt, is that every option on the second round is really kind of bad, you either distort shape or strength. Those problems are considered worse by most people than the lack of tenace positions. Hand 2 -- the reason to bid spades is you might have a 4-4 spade fit. You are too strong to rebid 2nt over 2h, just bid 4h. Hand 3 -- you really should bid 1s, partner can easily have 4 spades, and for 2c you are supposed to try to have 6 of them. 1S will get you to spades when it's right, 1nt when it's right, and still a chance to get to 2c. While 2c often will get to clubs when the alternatives are better. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kgr Posted April 30, 2009 Report Share Posted April 30, 2009 1. 16 and a 4333? Sure, we might want pard to declarer with Aces and spaces (or not - we do have A9 A9 AT). Try to describe your hand to pard as best you can and open 1N. 2. 1♠ is fine. 2N is a mild underbid compared to 3N and 4♥. I prefer 4♥ by a nose. 3. 1♠ is clear, not 2♣. agree; 3NT and 4♥ are close on the second. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted April 30, 2009 Report Share Posted April 30, 2009 #1 1NT, I have a bal. hand with the right point count, what describes my hand best?#2 1S - can we have a spade fit? If the answer is yes, than that is the reason. I would understand the question, why I bave bid 2NT, which most players would treat as a nonforcing bid.#3 1S, again can we still have a spade fit? If yes, than that is the answer, otherwise 2C is ok, but given the semi bal. nature 1NT is a real option. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Hanoi5 Posted April 30, 2009 Report Share Posted April 30, 2009 I think you should try to get a new partner... In Nº 1, I'd open 1NT, too. Yes, it'll be better to open in 1m, but how am I gonna tell partner that I have a 16-count balanced? And THAT balanced... In Nº 2 the reason to bid 1♠ is that you have 4 and you don't have support for partner's Majors, what did he suggest? I do think, however that you should rebid 3NT over 2♥, unless your 2NT is forcing... In Nº 3 I sort of agree with your partner, although I would have rebid 1NT instead of 2♣ or 1♠ IF partner can use check-back to find out whether I had 4 spades (and/or 3 hearts). The reason for bidding 1NT is that I want to protect my red Kings, especially the ♦K. If we don't hide 4 spades, then 1♠ is clear. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
vuroth Posted April 30, 2009 Report Share Posted April 30, 2009 I think the 3 answers given are all pretty clear. Does partner know what "resulting" means? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted April 30, 2009 Report Share Posted April 30, 2009 1. 1NT of course.2. 1♠ of course, then 4♥. I absolutely hate rebidding 3NT, and 2NT was clearly an underbid on top of everything else. We have an 8 card major suit fit and an unstopped suit, with no clear way to find out if it's stopped. So what are we thinking about?3. 1♠ of course. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mtvesuvius Posted April 30, 2009 Report Share Posted April 30, 2009 must... resist... three... letter... acronyms... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
vuroth Posted April 30, 2009 Report Share Posted April 30, 2009 must... resist... three... letter... acronyms... TLAs are your friend. :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted April 30, 2009 Report Share Posted April 30, 2009 #1: 1NT seems obvious. But... 3.333X8=26.667. 26.667-16=10. 0-2:1, 2-6:2, 6-9:3, 19+:4. 16+4=20. 20-1=19. Maybe too strong for 1NT, in theory. 1NT seems obvious, but there is something to be said (by crazy people) for 1♣, planning to rebid 2NT if Responder doesn't bid spades. I might do this because the "x" spots included a lot of 8-9-10's, if I need a swing. #2: I don't get it. I mean, 2♣ instead might be a sexy bid. You should be able to get back to spades anyway, if that's right, and you might dissuade a club lead, but that's just if you want to be silly. #3: 100% 1♠. No other option. I'd bid 1♠ if I had a sixth club. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted April 30, 2009 Report Share Posted April 30, 2009 If I'm right I can't believe it, but is this your formula? (10 * Controls / 3) - 10 = XIf X is 9+, Y = 4HCP + Y - 1 = True Strength Just trying to understand before the headache kicks in... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
andy_h Posted May 1, 2009 Report Share Posted May 1, 2009 Stephen Tu summed it up nicely. I also strongly agree with 4H on 2 after partner's 2H rebid. I hope partner's not the type to open 15-17 5H332 with 1H and rebid 2H...actually maybe I do hope he has that, so he will convert to opening those 1NT now. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted May 1, 2009 Report Share Posted May 1, 2009 If I'm right I can't believe it, but is this your formula? (10 * Controls / 3) - 10 = XIf X is 9+, Y = 4HCP + Y - 1 = True Strength Just trying to understand before the headache kicks in... Almost. (10 * controls)/3=XActual HCP=Y X-Y=Z (could be positive or negative) Z "checked" on table 0-1.67 for +/-0, 2-5.67 for +/-1, 6-8.67 for +/-2, greater for +/-2 Then, -1 for 4-3-3-3 shape Other +/- could be lots of tens, abandoned or grouped honors, etc. I don't use this as a guide to open. I use this as a self-check when it "seems" right to open in some specific unexpected way. Pills work. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts