mtvesuvius Posted April 25, 2009 Report Share Posted April 25, 2009 [hv=d=e&v=e&n=shakqxxdakj9xxcax&w=shdc&e=shdc&s=skxxxh9dqtxxck9xx]399|300|Scoring: IMP(3♠) - Pass - (Pass) - 4NT(Pass)- 5♣ - (Pass) - 6♦ - All Pass. ATB.[/hv] This was not dad... :rolleyes: Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rogerclee Posted April 25, 2009 Report Share Posted April 25, 2009 North should've bid 4♠ and then 5♠ and then 6♦, south can go after that, but as it is he wasn't given that option since north could very easily be off a spade trick. So 100% north. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hanp Posted April 25, 2009 Report Share Posted April 25, 2009 He wasn't given that option? Of course south has this option, north has just shown a hand that wants to play slam by itself and south has Q10xx of diamonds plus a singleton heart. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trinidad Posted April 25, 2009 Report Share Posted April 25, 2009 I agree with Han. North has shown a red twosuiter that wants to play a small slam in a red suit, regardless of what South holds. If South trusts North, he has an easy 7♦ bid. Rik Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rbforster Posted April 25, 2009 Report Share Posted April 25, 2009 North has shown a red twosuiter that wants to play a small slam in a red suitHow sure are we that 4N wasn't blackwood (and 5♣ zero)? Aside from this hand, what's the expert treatment of the balancing jump to 4N here? Natural slam invite or minors (with cue being OM+minor)? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted April 25, 2009 Report Share Posted April 25, 2009 I can't believe people think everything is obvious on auctions like this. No one has any good idea what anyone needs for anything. North doesn't promise 12 rock solid tricks to bid slam on his own, to some extent he has to take a chance (like he did on the actual hand!) so it's silly to say if south has some sort of sure trick he should raise to a grand (granted he does have more than that.) Whose fault would it be if south raised to a grand and north had - KQJxxx AKJxxx A? Whose fault would it be if north cuebid twice and south thought Kxxx x Qxx Qxxxx was (more than) enough to bid a grand? When they preempt you should tend to shoot low, and sometimes you will underbid like this time. It happens. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted April 25, 2009 Report Share Posted April 25, 2009 agree with josh, you shouldn't be blamed for this. But also think South is closer to bid 7 than to pass 6. Not an easy decision, but having ♥KQ partially wasted and still making 7 sounds like he underbid a bit. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
OleBerg Posted April 25, 2009 Report Share Posted April 25, 2009 I'd rather bid 7♦ on 5♣ than 6♦. All partner needs is to four small in a red suit and four spades, for a grand to be reasonable. When I have a fair shot of making a grand facing a true Yearl, I bid it. Of course if I have a sequence available to show such a powerhouse, I'd use it. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
barryallen Posted April 25, 2009 Report Share Posted April 25, 2009 I can't believe people think everything is obvious on auctions like this. No one has any good idea what anyone needs for anything. North doesn't promise 12 rock solid tricks to bid slam on his own, to some extent he has to take a chance (like he did on the actual hand!) so it's silly to say if south has some sort of sure trick he should raise to a grand (granted he does have more than that.) Whose fault would it be if south raised to a grand and north had - KQJxxx AKJxxx A? Whose fault would it be if north cuebid twice and south thought Kxxx x Qxx Qxxxx was (more than) enough to bid a grand? When they preempt you should tend to shoot low, and sometimes you will underbid like this time. It happens. The question is, what does the 4♠ bid signify? If this is Michaels based and following Rogers auction, the 5♠ bid forces the contract to the 6 level with no help from South. What would a bid of 6♣ from South now define? North has 3 options of moving the contract on assuming a solid ♥ suit, 5♠, 5NT or 6♣. Which ever way you chose, one of these should enable the partnership to get to 7♦? Would this be reaching too far for a decent partnership? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ArtK78 Posted April 25, 2009 Report Share Posted April 25, 2009 I don't bid grand slams on speculation. While South's hand is quite good on the auction, he cannot guarantee that his hand provides the 13th trick and that North has no quick losers. So, while South may be understandably worried that his hand is going to produce a grand, he has no way of knowing it with certainly. Preempts do work. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Phil Posted April 25, 2009 Report Share Posted April 25, 2009 Agree that North has a 4♠ call. 6♦ would then describe the hand perfectly. I don't like 5♠ because that implies club support and might cause South to misevaluate if South has a clubs-only hand. South still has a guess over 6♦ but sometimes will guess right and bid 7. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted April 26, 2009 Report Share Posted April 26, 2009 How about 3♠ pass pass 5♠ ? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bill1157 Posted May 3, 2009 Report Share Posted May 3, 2009 If North had overcalled 6♦, everyone would agree that south should bid 7. This is essentially what happened so south should still bid 7♦. Easy Bill Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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