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Flailing at the Three Level


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In this auction:

1 (1) dbl (P)

2 (P) ?

 

Which calls do you believe to be forcing by responder? As this double shows more than a response, do you think it is different from

1 (P) 1 (1)

2 (P) ?

 

When this came up, our system was that all balanced hand outside of nt openers open 1: this obviously makes this auction harder, does it change what you think is forcing?

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All of responder's calls are forcing because pard's 2 promises another call.

 

I don't see any difference in the two auctions, although you are right that double promises more than 1.

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All of responder's calls are forcing because pard's 2 promises another call.

 

I don't see any difference in the two auctions, although you are right that double promises more than 1.

Unless I have misread this, or got the bidding system wrong. I cannot see why a X will show greater strength over an overcall? I would have thought the ability to use a double with minimal points (6-8) but balanced shape for the remaining suits one of it's strong points?

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Absurd!

 

Any bid is forcing at least to game, that was the meaning of 2 and therefore whatever you do you must reach game. The strongest bid is definitely 3 though.

 

Standard negative doubles require 8+, while responding at 1-level require 6, or even 5 points. So declarer can have a bit less with the first sequence...though still generally same.

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All of responder's calls are forcing because pard's 2 promises another call.

 

I don't see any difference in the two auctions, although you are right that double promises more than 1.

Unless I have misread this, or got the bidding system wrong. I cannot see why a X will show greater strength over an overcall? I would have thought the ability to use a double with minimal points (6-8) but balanced shape for the remaining suits one of it's strong points?

Good question. Many will respond (after RHO passes) with an Ace or two quacks or something awful. There is good potential to steal in this seat, especially if you are w/r. I know some pairs that play 1m practically forcing at w/r.

 

Once RHO overcalls, the opportunities to steal are very limited, and calls like negative doubles show traditional values.

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I was not expecting these responses…perhaps I misunderstand the standard meaning of 2. I thought that it was usually a 2NT rebid without a spade stopper: is that standard? If opener does not fit responder’s major, and neither partner has a spade stopper, where are we going? To 5m when we do not necessarily have that great of a fit? It seems to me that often it will be right to get out in 3m.
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