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2/1 2nd rebid


Gerben42

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2NT.

 

The last thing I want to do is to bid 3H.... I want to leave room for him support my Diams. (if that isthe case) and my partner would also hate me if we miss a possible slam just because he quit trying for it after I bid a suit in which he might have a singleton/void.

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2N is clear... even tho I am big on postioning notrump contracts, 2N is the least distortion and if partner bids 3N, the odds are very good that the opps can take no more than 4 heart tricks, and may not have a natural heart lead anyway.

 

2N allows partner to complete the description of his hand and we will usually be able to find a 6-3 spade fit anyway (not always, of course... with 6223 partner will sometimes bid 3N.. but when he does, it rates to be ok).

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What would 3NT be here in 2/1? (..sorry, don't know 2/1 very well).

Wrong.

 

Just kidding. Actually, I think there is a lot of dispute and/or complete confusion as to what 3NT should show.

 

Whatever it shows, the reason why 2NT seems clear is that the hand has no great desire to play in 3NT. If Opener bids 3 over 2NT, 3NT may have no play but 6 or 6 might be nearly laydown.

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the reason why 2NT seems clear is that the hand has no great desire to play in 3NT.

Hmm.... so what you're saying is that maybe we should swap 2N and 3? That way opener plays 3N when he wants to (and we don't) and he still gets almost as much space to describe his hand.

Not really. What I'm saying is that you bid 2NT when you still have aspirations of playing slam, if 2NT describes your hand well.

 

Bidding notrump does not always mean that you want to play 3NT no matter what happens.

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2N is clear... even tho I am big on postioning notrump contracts, 2N is the least distortion and if partner bids 3N, the odds are very good that the opps can take no more than 4 heart tricks, and may not have a natural heart lead anyway.

 

No, maybe they have a natural lead. And when partner has no values there, 3NT sounds like a BAD idea...

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