jillybean Posted April 17, 2009 Report Share Posted April 17, 2009 Dealer: North Vul: NS Scoring: IMP ♠ Q985 ♥ KQT4 ♦ Q3 ♣ AT7 West North East South - 2NT Pass ? Partner opens 2nt in first seat, how will you bid this? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ochinko Posted April 17, 2009 Report Share Posted April 17, 2009 There must be a catch here, but I am not able to see it. Stayman, then either 6M or 6NT. I won't fret much if we'd missed a grand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mcphee Posted April 17, 2009 Report Share Posted April 17, 2009 I start with stayman, if partner responds either major, I now bid the other major to show a balanced slam try and later force my way to 6. If partner responds 3D no major I settle for 5NT, pick a slam. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted April 17, 2009 Report Share Posted April 17, 2009 After 2♣, whether Puppet or Stayman, Opener does something. What is that? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted April 17, 2009 Report Share Posted April 17, 2009 Assuming you have sensible agreements in place:Stayman, if partner showes a major, make a forcing raiseof the major (bidding the other major), followed by RKCB. If you dont have the option to create a forcing auction, thansimply bid 6NT. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted April 17, 2009 Report Share Posted April 17, 2009 There must be a catch here, but I am not able to see it. Stayman, then either 6M or 6NT. I won't fret much if we'd missed a grand. How much will you fret, if they cash AK of trumps? Not likely, but can happen. If you have the option to avoid this, it may be worth trying it. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
petergreat Posted April 17, 2009 Report Share Posted April 17, 2009 West North East South - 2NT - 3♣ Case 1: 3♦ - 3♦ - 6NT. Don't fret about it. If you really do lose two tricks count yourself unlucky. Case 2: 3 major. Then bid 6 of the major. You don't need to broadcast your aces to the opponents. Unlikely to miss a grand: You have 33 - 35 points combined (assuming 2NT 20-22) and balanced hands. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jillybean Posted April 17, 2009 Author Report Share Posted April 17, 2009 Dealer: North Vul: NS Scoring: IMP ♠ Q985 ♥ KQT4 ♦ Q3 ♣ AT7 West North East South - 2NT Pass 3♣ Pass 3♥ Pass ? 6♥ now? 6nt may be the better contract, how do you decide? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jillybean Posted April 17, 2009 Author Report Share Posted April 17, 2009 .. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Old York Posted April 17, 2009 Report Share Posted April 17, 2009 I bid 6♥ , (maybe after 1 round of cue bids then rkcb) 6NT may play better if partner is maximum, but you might need a ruff if partner is minimum. Tony Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hrothgar Posted April 17, 2009 Report Share Posted April 17, 2009 Dealer: North Vul: NS Scoring: IMP ♠ Q985 ♥ KQT4 ♦ Q3 ♣ AT7 West North East South - 2NT Pass 3♣ Pass 3♥ Pass ? 6♥ now? 6nt may be the better contract, how do you decide? Hi Kathryn... I'd be very surprised if 6N ended up better than 6♥. In order for 6NT to be better that 6♥, we need to have 12 tricks available in NT BUTtwo losers in a Heart contract This essentially requires either 1. The defense is able to score a ruff2. Partner's 4+ card Heart suit is SO weak that we're worried about two trump losers Let's answer these in turn 1. With two flat hands facing one another, I'm not going to worry much about the ruff. No matter how good my bidding methods are, I'm not going to get much information about the opponents distribution. In theory, if I were playing some very specialized methods I MIGHT be able to figure out that I have 12 top tricks in NT. In practice, I'd I'm playing those types of methods, I wouldn't have opened 2NT to begin with... 2. As for the two trump loser hand... The strength of my heart suit and the fact that partner has 4+ Hearts (and thus, tends to deny 5+ cards in some other suit) makes is extremely unlikely that NT will produce more tricks that Hearts. Partner's hand isn't going to have a long source of tricks outside hearts. Therefore, he rates to have the same Heart loser in either NT or Hearts Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JLOL Posted April 17, 2009 Report Share Posted April 17, 2009 stayman then 6N if no major suit fit, 6M if we have a fit. When partner bids hearts I'm really not worried that I should be in NT, over spades it's more likely. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jillybean Posted April 18, 2009 Author Report Share Posted April 18, 2009 Thanks all, The auction was;2nt:3♣3♥:6♥ 6♥-1 after a 5-0 trump break, my pard and I didnt know if we should havebeen in 6N. Other tables were in 6N= Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted April 18, 2009 Report Share Posted April 18, 2009 They misbid Kathryn. :-) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jillybean Posted April 18, 2009 Author Report Share Posted April 18, 2009 They misbid Kathryn. :-) That makes a nice change :( Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Old York Posted April 18, 2009 Report Share Posted April 18, 2009 Many tables would bid 2NT-6NT, but this is technically inferior (especially at Imp scoring). Perhaps the 6NT bidders thought they were playing matchpoints? You can consider yourself very unfortunate to find 5-0 trumps, hopefully next time you bid 6♥ you will be able to ruff a loser, and thus beat the 6NT bidders (scoring a top at MP) Tony Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted April 18, 2009 Report Share Posted April 18, 2009 Out of curiosity, what was partner's hand? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jillybean Posted April 18, 2009 Author Report Share Posted April 18, 2009 [hv=d=n&v=n&n=skj3ha987dak7ckq3&s=sq985hkqt4dq3cat7]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv] West North East South - 2NT Pass 3♣ Pass 3♥ Pass 6♥ Pass Pass Pass Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mikeh Posted April 18, 2009 Report Share Posted April 18, 2009 jb: as one of the earlier posts suggested, it is common advanced+ practice to use a non-jump bid of the other major, after a major response to stayman following a strong 2N opening (including a 2n rebid after 2C) as showing a slam try (usually balanced) with a fit in opener's major. Now, opener has a minimum, weak trumps, and flat distribution so might well slow things down... but responder is driving to slam and has a balanced hand with stuff in all suits... so IF you have a 5N pick a slam gadget available, and most B/I's won't.... then I can see, for example, opener rebidding 4♥ and responder bidding 5N... yes we could be off the AK spades, but that is highly unlikely... you have to bid SOME slam with 13 hcp :rolleyes: Now opener has an easy 6N because he has such a flat hand. But, this requires two non-B/I agreements... I wouldn't worry overly much about this result...chalk it up to bad luck. I think it foolish to have South unilaterally bid 6N... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
spotlight7 Posted April 18, 2009 Report Share Posted April 18, 2009 Hi: Meckewell plays that a bid of 6 of a suit directly under the agreed major offers a choice of six suit vs 6NT. Not a common agreement in the BI section. Regards, Robert Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jillybean Posted April 18, 2009 Author Report Share Posted April 18, 2009 Hi: Meckewell plays that a bid of 6 of a suit directly under the agreed major offers a choice of six suit vs 6NT. Not a common agreement in the BI section. Regards, Robert HI, how would this work on the auction I posted? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jillybean Posted April 18, 2009 Author Report Share Posted April 18, 2009 But, this requires two non-B/I agreements... I wouldn't worry overly much about this result...chalk it up to bad luck. Im collecting a lot of these treatments to file away until such a time I can use them or perhaps recall them if they do pop up – thanks for the explanation. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted April 19, 2009 Report Share Posted April 19, 2009 [hv=d=n&v=n&n=skj3ha987dak7ckq3&s=sq985hkqt4dq3cat7]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv] West North East South - 2NT Pass 3♣ Pass 3♥ Pass 6♥ Pass Pass Pass 6♥ might be able to survive a 5-0 with East having five. Suppose the opponents lead the spade Ace and out. You try the correct heart King (or Queen) and find out the bad news. If East also has three spades, you can cash two more spades. If that person also has two of each minor, you can cash two of each minor, leaving dummy with a high club. You then play the high diamond. If east follows, he is down to just hearts. You pitch the club. On the club, next, RHO can ruff in with, say, the 6, forcing your 10. You ruff the spade high (RHO must underruff) and lead the heart 9, claiming the last tricks. If East on the high diamond ditches a spade or club, the same ending results. If East ruffs low, you need him to have a third club, so you can cash that before leading the heart 9. Whatever he does, you claim. You probably also have play when West has five hearts, although you may need to guess RHO's exact pattern or something. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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