gwnn Posted April 16, 2009 Report Share Posted April 16, 2009 What should partner's rebids be after I bid 2NT invitational after some sequence? Say, 1m-2NT3m 1♠-1NT2♥-2NT3♠ 1♦-1♠2♣-2NT3♣ 1♥-1♠2♦-2♠2NT-3♦ of course there are sequences that are obviously GF, like 1♦-2NT3♠ I'm talking about the rest of the sequences, that could conceivably be useful as natural NF (or even signoff). If you think it depends, what does it depend on? What meta-agreement do you have? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JLOL Posted April 16, 2009 Report Share Posted April 16, 2009 If you rebid your first minor its clearly NF (1m 2N 3m) If you rebid your second suit it is debatable how you should play it, I now think NF is right, but forcing has a lot of merit obv. S H S is forcing. 3D is weird in your last auction, but I could think of bidding that way with KQJxxx x xxxx xx. I think the logic of the auction is that 3D is NF given that 2S and 2N were both NF. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted April 16, 2009 Report Share Posted April 16, 2009 I think that any return to a suit that the bidder has already shown should be a signoff, unless it implies a shape that means you can't have a weak hand. If you're English, in some auctions you can use the fourth suit to deal with game-forcing 5-5s. For example: 1♥-1♠; 2♦-2NT; 3♦ is a signoff, but1♥-1♠; 2♦-2NT; 3♥ is forcing, because you wouldn't bid 2♦ with a weak 6-4.1♥-1♠; 2♦-2NT; 3♣ is fourth-suit forcing, and includes good 5-5s. 1♠-1NT; 2♥-2NT; 3♠ depends on whether opener can have a weak 6-4 for this sequence. If he can, this is non-forcing. With a good 6-4, you might bid a minor-suit fragment to fish out spade support. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted April 17, 2009 Report Share Posted April 17, 2009 1.1m-2NT3m 2.1♠-1NT2♥-2NT3♠ 3.1♦-1♠2♣-2NT3♣ 4.1♥-1♠2♦-2♠2NT-3♦ 1. NF. If pard had good clubs, he'd bid 3NT. So he's got typically a broken 6 card suit. 2. Same thing. If pard had good spades, he'd bid 4♠. 3. NF. Familiar argument by now. 4. See 1,2,3. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted April 17, 2009 Report Share Posted April 17, 2009 S H S is forcing. Yes. We have had that discussion a couple of times before. The argument is that if opener had a minimum 6-4 he would probably pass 2NT, and if not, he should probably have rebid 2♠ rather than 2♥. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
petergreat Posted April 17, 2009 Report Share Posted April 17, 2009 Rebid shows a desire to play in suit contract, possibly inviting 3NT? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted April 17, 2009 Report Share Posted April 17, 2009 #1 NF #2 NF. although one could agree that this seq. is forcing, but you have FSF av. #3 NF, well opener simply describes his shape further, in this seq. it may make sense to play 3C as forcing, but for memory sake, I would go with NF as well, you have FSF av. #4 NF, opener is tightly limited, responder is limited, if With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hatchett Posted April 17, 2009 Report Share Posted April 17, 2009 1♠-1NT2♥-2NT3♠ A useful adjunct in this sequence to play 3♣ as artificial asking opener to bid 3♦. Then a 3 major continuation is GF and 3NT shows a ♦ fragment. Then you can play a direct 3 major rebid over 2NT as NF, Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted April 17, 2009 Report Share Posted April 17, 2009 1♠-1NT2♥-2NT3♠ A useful adjunct in this sequence to play 3♣ as artificial asking opener to bid 3♦. Then a 3 major continuation is GF and 3NT shows a ♦ fragment. Then you can play a direct 3 major rebid over 2NT as NF, You mean 3♣ by opener (over responder's 2NT) asks responder to bid 3♦, don't you? Otherwise I don't quite follow. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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