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Is it a splinter?


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Some discussion at the bridgeclub tonight.

You hold: Kxx KQJ x AJ10xxx.

Playing 2/1 partner opens 1, overcall 1

Now you can bid 2 to show club fit with limit+.

 

The question is wheather 3 is asking partner bid 3NT with a stop and 4 is a splinter.

Or is 3 the splinter bid.

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Depends on your agreement, 3 is a transfer to 3N I think for modern players and is a splinter for us old fogies like me and Adam's dad.

My dad doesn't even play 4 way transfers!!!!!!!

 

Well, I use 3 with most people as a transfer to 3NT.

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I must really be a fart, as 3 seems obviously to be a splinter. I don't even understand the transfer to 3NT concept. I mean, if it is an asking bid, asking partner to bid 3NT if he has some reason, then OK. But, what holding could I have where I want to insist that the diamond lead goes through me?
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I know Fred strongly advocates having some bid transfer to notrump. Partly that you can get something like Qx or Qxx or various other holdings to declare, and partly that the overcaller may have a broken suit he is worried about leading. Personally I have never played it and never particularly thought I needed it. Usually you can cuebid twice or bid a suit then cuebid and coerce partner into eventually bidding notrump, and the splinter is useful.

 

The best "result" I ever saw from that treatment was I overcalled on JT98x, LHO used his transfer-to-3NT bid, and I led my suit. Dummy had Axx and it went low low queen. It turned out declarer had KQx but was messing with dummy, since he was the one who loved the convention.

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