dicklont Posted April 14, 2009 Report Share Posted April 14, 2009 Some discussion at the bridgeclub tonight.You hold: ♠Kxx ♥KQJ ♦x ♣AJ10xxx.Playing 2/1 partner opens 1♣, overcall 1♦Now you can bid 2♦ to show club fit with limit+. The question is wheather 3♦ is asking partner bid 3NT with a stop and 4♦ is a ♦ splinter.Or is 3♦ the splinter bid. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Phil Posted April 14, 2009 Report Share Posted April 14, 2009 Depends on your agreement, 3♦ is a transfer to 3N I think for modern players and is a splinter for us old fogies like me and Adam's dad. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mtvesuvius Posted April 14, 2009 Report Share Posted April 14, 2009 Depends on your agreement, 3♦ is a transfer to 3N I think for modern players and is a splinter for us old fogies like me and Adam's dad. My dad doesn't even play 4 way transfers!!!!!!! Well, I use 3♦ with most people as a transfer to 3NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted April 14, 2009 Report Share Posted April 14, 2009 I must really be a fart, as 3♦ seems obviously to be a splinter. I don't even understand the transfer to 3NT concept. I mean, if it is an asking bid, asking partner to bid 3NT if he has some reason, then OK. But, what holding could I have where I want to insist that the diamond lead goes through me? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rbforster Posted April 15, 2009 Report Share Posted April 15, 2009 I'm with Ken on this one, treating 3♦ as a splinter. I'd bid 2♦ limit+, expecting it to act like a "transfer to NT" when partner has a balanced hand and a diamond stop. If he bids a major, we can always re-cue 3♦ to get the message across. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hanp Posted April 15, 2009 Report Share Posted April 15, 2009 I play it is a splinter. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted April 15, 2009 Report Share Posted April 15, 2009 I know Fred strongly advocates having some bid transfer to notrump. Partly that you can get something like Qx or Qxx or various other holdings to declare, and partly that the overcaller may have a broken suit he is worried about leading. Personally I have never played it and never particularly thought I needed it. Usually you can cuebid twice or bid a suit then cuebid and coerce partner into eventually bidding notrump, and the splinter is useful. The best "result" I ever saw from that treatment was I overcalled on JT98x, LHO used his transfer-to-3NT bid, and I led my suit. Dummy had Axx and it went low low queen. It turned out declarer had KQx but was messing with dummy, since he was the one who loved the convention. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kfay Posted April 15, 2009 Report Share Posted April 15, 2009 Personally, I only play 1m-(1M)-3M as a transfer to 3N. This makes sense to me. But I can't pretend I think about these vogue conventions from every angle. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted April 15, 2009 Report Share Posted April 15, 2009 It makes more sense to use 3♦ as a splinter and 3♠ as a transfer to 3NT. Whatever you currently use 3♠ for, I can't believe it's more useful than a 3♦ splinter. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
y66 Posted April 15, 2009 Report Share Posted April 15, 2009 In BWS 2001, after they overcall our 1M opening, a jump cue-bid is a splinter. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted April 15, 2009 Report Share Posted April 15, 2009 For me 3D is a splinter, may mean I am also old school. If you are interested in a stopper you go slower, eithervia a neg. X followed by the cue, or by bidding a new suit,or making the limit raise. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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