Hanoi5 Posted April 14, 2009 Report Share Posted April 14, 2009 ♠KJxx♥x♦Axx♣Kxxxx 1♥-??? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
neilkaz Posted April 14, 2009 Report Share Posted April 14, 2009 Yes...one bid..a takeout double. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hrothgar Posted April 14, 2009 Report Share Posted April 14, 2009 Assumption 1: You are playing relatively standard methods.Assumption 2: The 4=1=3=5 hand is responding to 1♥ and not competing over 1♥. IMHO, there's more than one school of thought regarding the appropriate response. Some players advocate a 2♣ responseOthers prefer 1♠ I would bid 1♠ with this hand (I think that the club suit lacks texture for a 2♣ response) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JLOL Posted April 14, 2009 Report Share Posted April 14, 2009 Agree with obv t/o X Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
skjaeran Posted April 14, 2009 Report Share Posted April 14, 2009 I guess I'm responder. The hand isn't strong enough to GF vs my minimum openers, so 1♠.Add a queen somewhere, and I'd bid 2♣. If RHO opened, double is obvious. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mtvesuvius Posted April 14, 2009 Report Share Posted April 14, 2009 WTP Double. 1♠ if I am responder. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted April 14, 2009 Report Share Posted April 14, 2009 Since we are guessing at all sorts of auctions and stuff: Double, if RHO opened 1♥.1♠ if partner opened 1♥ and I'm playing 2/1.2♣ is partner opened 1♥ and I'm playing standard.Double if LHO opened 1♥ and there were two passes.1♠ if RHO opened 1♥ and we are using canape overcalls.1♠ if I opened 1♥ and then RHO passed out of turn. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gwnn Posted April 15, 2009 Report Share Posted April 15, 2009 RHO opened 1♥ and OP asks us if this is a one bid hand or two bid hand. The answer is yes, it is a one bid hand. X. To generate some controversy as to 2♣ or x, you should make them like ♠Jxxx + ♣AKJTx. Personally I'd double even with that, but I'm sure there are some good players who'd 2♣. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted April 15, 2009 Report Share Posted April 15, 2009 If they opened 1H, you have a t/o......................................................................................If partner opened, I would go with 2C, if you play a system,which allowes this, i.e. you dont play 2/1, or and you dont play that the following auction (*) 1H - 2C2H - 2S forces the partnership to game. The reason is simple, if you answer 1S, you wont be able toshow the club unless you are willing to force to game, and thishand is not worth it.If you play 2/1 or that the auction (*) forces the partnershipto game, than you have to go with 1S. So the answer to you question is:Yes there is only one bid, but it is depend on partnership agreement. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Finch Posted April 15, 2009 Report Share Posted April 15, 2009 [Pedantry on]A double is not a bid[Pedantry off] Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted April 15, 2009 Report Share Posted April 15, 2009 I think I opened 1♠ (canapé) and LHO made an insufficient bid. I have to double then. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted April 15, 2009 Report Share Posted April 15, 2009 I also take it I'm responder. 1♠ seems better, as a 2♣ response kind of forces us to bid 2♠ later, which is game forcing. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kgr Posted April 15, 2009 Report Share Posted April 15, 2009 1♠ if partner opened 1♥ and I'm playing 2/1.2♣ is partner opened 1♥ and I'm playing standard. In standard if you first bid 2♣ and then ♠ , isn't this Game Force?...why then bid different in 2/1 and standard? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted April 16, 2009 Report Share Posted April 16, 2009 1♠ if partner opened 1♥ and I'm playing 2/1.2♣ is partner opened 1♥ and I'm playing standard. In standard if you first bid 2♣ and then ♠ , isn't this Game Force?...why then bid different in 2/1 and standard? Because it is not clear, that 2S is a game force. For me the auction could still stop in 2NT or 3C.The question is, if 2S promises add. strength, andadd. strength compared to 2C, for me it would not,responder would just make his promised 2nd bid,he is forced to bid, and it is not a free bid. Of course 2C only promises another bid, if you happen to play something like SAYC, but than SAYC is the closestdescription of Standard I came across, and I am not sayingit is a perfect or nearly perfect description. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trinidad Posted April 16, 2009 Report Share Posted April 16, 2009 [Pedantry on]A double is not a bid[Pedantry off][Pedantry on]A sentence is finished by a full stop ('.').[Pedantry off] [Rant on]Ok, I'll bite. You are absolutely right and in an English forum this would be perfectly fine to point out. But BBO is an international forum. A large part of the BBO community doesn't have American as a native language. While it is perfectly clear that the language in this forum is American, should be American and will be American, demanding that everyone understands the subtle difference between a 'call' and a 'bid' is asking too much. If the original poster goes by the name of 'Hanoi5', it is very easy to imagine that he (or she) doesn't know the difference between a 'call' and a 'bid'. Therefore, responders to this post should allow for that. This makes your remark technically correct, but otherwise off the mark. Since I consider the quality of virtually all of your posts in the range of 'good' to 'excellent', I wasn't expecting this from you. You could (should) be grateful that you happen to have English as your native language. It gives you the advantage of having a better understanding of American than many of us will ever have. If you don't point out subtle language errors made by people who don't have American (or English or Australian) as their native language, I promise that I won't comment on your spelling of words like 'honor' or 'analyze'.[Rant off] Rik (who in this context should point out that he doesn't have any connection to Trinidad and Tobago and doesn't have American, English or any variation of it as his native language) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JLOL Posted April 16, 2009 Report Share Posted April 16, 2009 LOL Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Hanoi5 Posted April 16, 2009 Author Report Share Posted April 16, 2009 In Spanish we often use 'declaración' (bid) in order to refer to any 'canto' (call). I didn't even think about that when I made this topic (or any topic I've done here), for then every 'what's your bid?' question should really have been 'what's your call?'. (Not bridge related)I believe it's funny how some people get all riled up over most kind of language mistakes, for the real important issue is that we understand each other. It's like asking 'what would you do with this hand?' and getting some philosophical/joking answer like 'I would sort it out and bid correctly' or 'I'll stand up and drink some water' or 'I'll look act it, evaluate it and make the correct call'. We usually know what is wanted from us. There is a Turkish poster who tends to be good at transfering (or whatever mistake it is he's making) Turkish into English, I also think we 'mistreat' him sometimes (sometimes :huh: ). It is also funny how low in steem Britons regard Americans (not only in respect to the language) and how Americans don't seem to realize this and are always praising their former conquerors. This probably has to do with the sense of pride that the British seem to have (as I was sort of reading in George Orwell's 'The Lion and the Unicorn', though I haven't finished).(end of not bridge related stuff) However I'll bother asking this, is it correct to say 'Let's bid this hand' or 'Let's call this hand'? Apparently the verb form of the word 'bid' includes Pass and double, but it's not the same when we use the noun? Finally I meant to ask what the proper action was with the hand in question as an overcall, so maybe I should have asked: 1♥-(???) And I guess we have all agreed that double is way better than 2♣ in contrast with: ♠JTx♥x♦AKQJ8♣Q9xx After the same bidding I believe this is a 2♦ overcall (I had 4 tables in a class yesterday and only one doubled), but to make a real difficult one, what about: ♠JTxx♥x♦AKQJ8♣Q9x Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Walddk Posted April 16, 2009 Report Share Posted April 16, 2009 This is quite funny. If RHO opens 1♥ and you enter the auction in second seat with 2♣, it is an overcall, and it could also be an overbid :huh: Roland Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mohitz Posted April 16, 2009 Report Share Posted April 16, 2009 This is quite funny. If RHO opens 1♥ and you enter the auction in second seat with 2♣, it is an overcall, and it could also be an overbid :huh: Roland LOL Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
655321 Posted April 16, 2009 Report Share Posted April 16, 2009 And I guess we have all agreed that double is way better than 2♣ in contrast with: ♠JTx♥x♦AKQJ8♣Q9xx After the same bidding I believe this is a 2♦ overcall (I had 4 tables in a class yesterday and only one doubled), but to make a real difficult one, what about: ♠JTxx♥x♦AKQJ8♣Q9xI would double a 1♥ opening with both of these hands. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trinidad Posted April 16, 2009 Report Share Posted April 16, 2009 This is quite funny. If RHO opens 1♥ and you enter the auction in second seat with 2♣, it is an overcall, and it could also be an overbid ;) RolandIt's even funnier. If you would double, which is a call and not a bid, it wouldn't be an overcall, but could be described as an overbid. ;) Rik Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trinidad Posted April 16, 2009 Report Share Posted April 16, 2009 I believe it's funny how some people get all riled up over most kind of language mistakes, for the real important issue is that we understand each other. That's pretty much the point I wanted to make. Rik Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Walddk Posted April 16, 2009 Report Share Posted April 16, 2009 And even funnier if you look in old British books and magazines. 1♠ No Bid 2♣ No Bid2♦ No Bid 2♠ No Bid and so on. You also see 'No' instead of 'Pass'. As far as 'No Bid' is concerned, I guess it should have been No Bid or Call ;) Roland Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
nick_s Posted April 16, 2009 Report Share Posted April 16, 2009 Finally I meant to ask what the proper action was with the hand in question as an overcall, so maybe I should have asked: 1♥-(???)Actually you should have asked: (1♥)-? It's normal here to put opponents' bids in ()'s Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
miguelm Posted April 16, 2009 Report Share Posted April 16, 2009 1S if I am responder. Double, otherwise. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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