MarkDean Posted April 12, 2009 Report Share Posted April 12, 2009 [hv=d=s&s=saqjt6hajda83ca73]133|100|Scoring: XIMP[/hv] If your balanced options are 19-20 and 21-22, what do you open this hand? I chose 1♠, and partner surprised me with a 2♦ call, normal 2/1 stuff, what is your call? Any plans? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dicklont Posted April 12, 2009 Report Share Posted April 12, 2009 2NT for now, see what partner rebids, he might even support spades.If he doesn't I support diamonds in the next round. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JLOL Posted April 12, 2009 Report Share Posted April 12, 2009 2N then later raise diamonds and drive to at least slam. Would have opened 21 to 22 bal. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted April 12, 2009 Report Share Posted April 12, 2009 2N then later raise diamonds and drive to at least slam. Would have opened 21 to 22 bal. I agree. If anything, this hand might be too strong for "21-22." LOL Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MarkDean Posted April 12, 2009 Author Report Share Posted April 12, 2009 So I also bid 2NT, partner bid 3NT. What now? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Phil Posted April 12, 2009 Report Share Posted April 12, 2009 So I also bid 2NT, partner bid 3NT. What now? Obvious slam try after 3N :lol: Yesterday in San Diego we had this auction: 1♥ - 1♠ - 2♥* - pass4♥ - pass - pass** - pass * - tank** - looonnng tank lol she held QT9xxx AKJ xx xx and was considering a slam try. +480. In fairness, her partner's 4♥ was VERY quick so maybe she should have made a move. ;) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted April 12, 2009 Report Share Posted April 12, 2009 So I also bid 2NT, partner bid 3NT. What now? I don't get it. If I open 1♠, partner bids 2♦.If I open 2NT, apparently 21-22, partner bids 3NT. I pass, because it gets the round over faster. I'm obviously playing with a loon, and I'd simply like to leave sooner rather than later. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MarkDean Posted April 12, 2009 Author Report Share Posted April 12, 2009 Oops, I should have been clearer, the opps silent, the auctions has started: 1♠ 2♦2NT 3NT? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JLOL Posted April 12, 2009 Report Share Posted April 12, 2009 Oops, I should have been clearer, the opps silent, the auctions has started: 1♠ 2♦2NT 3NT? 4D obv Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted April 12, 2009 Report Share Posted April 12, 2009 Oops, I should have been clearer, the opps silent, the auctions has started: 1♠ 2♦2NT 3NT? 4D obv I don't think 4♦ is obvious. I would rather bid 4♣, myself. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
xcurt Posted April 12, 2009 Report Share Posted April 12, 2009 Oops, I should have been clearer, the opps silent, the auctions has started: 1♠ 2♦2NT 3NT? 4D obv I don't think 4♦ is obvious. I would rather bid 4♣, myself. How is this supposed to help partner focus on the cards we know are important? I don't care what he has in clubs, I need to know if he has the missing diamond and spade honors. If he has the ♠K and the ♦KQxxx then I want to be in 7♠ (since he has to have a little something else to make up a 2/1, aceless, and playing in spades lets me ruff out diamonds if need be). Anything other than 4♦ is hopeless IMO. Keep in mind that partner, looking at zero aces and at most 9 HCP in our two suits, is trying hard to slow down the auction. He's probably already doing exactly that with that 3NT slam-killer call. I need to unambiguously set diamonds so that later calls will be interpreted as grand slam tries instead of groping for strain. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted April 12, 2009 Report Share Posted April 12, 2009 4♣ is a cuebid for diamonds. 4♣ and 4♦ show the same degree of diamond support, but 4♣ denies ♣A. 4♣ also has the advantage of allowing partner to mark time with 4♦ if he has something like xx Qxx KQJxx KQx, whereas over 4♦ he'd probably just sign off in 4NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JLOL Posted April 12, 2009 Report Share Posted April 12, 2009 Why wouldnt 4C just be 5224? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
nick_s Posted April 12, 2009 Report Share Posted April 12, 2009 No no no4C is clearly G****r Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Winstonm Posted April 13, 2009 Report Share Posted April 13, 2009 4C after partner has bid diamonds is Last Train Gerber. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JLOL Posted April 13, 2009 Report Share Posted April 13, 2009 It seems crazy to me to be forced to rebid 3C with 5224 and extra values on a hand like KQxxx AQ Qx AJxx. It also seems crazy to me to be forced to rebid 3C over 2N with some 1354 minimum that just wants to play 3N opposite a minimum. It seems like 4C showing clubs gains very little as opposed to 4C natural when you could still have a 44 fit in that suit. I quite like bidding 2N then 4C with that type of hand rather than being forced to bid a silly 3C. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted April 13, 2009 Report Share Posted April 13, 2009 I don't get it. This seems like such an easy situation. If you go past 3NT in this sequence and bid a suit, you have diamond support. It is not so much a matter of possibly being 5422. It is a matter of frequency and utility. You are vastly more likely to have diamond support than to have 5224 and some reason to not bid 3♣ initially (which makes a lot more sense when you are prepared to go past 3NT anyway). I also don't understand the objection to 4♣ as to somehow focusing incorrectly what partner should do next. As gnasher said, 4♣ allows a 4♦ call (cue?) from partner, which is not possible if you bid 4♦. I think (hope) gnasher made a typo; 4♣ shows control of clubs, such that 4♦ denies club control. I would expect 4♦ to be bid with something like ♠AKJ10x ♥AKx ♦KQx ♣xx (assuming that the partnership does not open these hands 2NT). I mean, in retrospect, the problem is somewhat insane anyway. You have to assume that this hand would not be opened 2NT, which seems impossible. I cannot imagine not opening 2NT unless, at a minimum, you have a worthless doubleton somewhere. So, in theory, 4♣ should advertise something like ♠AKJ10x ♥xx ♦KQx ♣AKx and 4♦ the worthless doubleton club. In other words, you cue around the worthless doubleton. Now, I could buy that more is going on here. Perhaps 4♣ should imply a heart problem and 4♥ should imply a club problem, such that 4♦ just shows a hand right below a 2NT opening, controls undefined. I would think that this would require more discussion, though. Easier to just cue what you have. If you cue 4♣, and partner bids 4♦, you bid 4♥ wtih a heart control (just below 2NT, or wrong for 2NT) but bid something else without a heart control (flawed 2NT). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
skjaeran Posted April 13, 2009 Report Share Posted April 13, 2009 I'd have opened 2NT, upgrading this to 21-22. After 1♠-2♦-2NT-3NT I'd cuebid 4♣, promising diamond suppport. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Old York Posted April 13, 2009 Report Share Posted April 13, 2009 Is 6♦ going to play better than 6NT? If we have 33+hcp then I am happy to bid 6NT with a pickup partner, with a regular partner 4♣ cue bid seems bestAny votes for 1♠-2♦(GF)-3♦(3+Diamonds + Extras) ?? Tony Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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