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If the best likely table result "scores a big fat zero" at matchpoints, then it is hardly important that a worse table result was obtained, and that's what I meant when I said that. However, just to be precise, it is not the matchpoint or IMP result to which Law 16B1 refers, it is the aggregate table score according to Law 77 which is germane.

 

Put it another way. If you were destined to get a zero at matchpoints because you were damaged, and the score adjustment still gives you a zero, that's just too bad.

 

You may now, if you like, point your finger at me, jump up and down, and yell "Nyah, nyah, nyah! You were wrong!"

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You may now, if you like, point your finger at me, jump up and down, and yell "Nyah, nyah, nyah! You were wrong!"

I would only do that if it didn't mean I was wrong, too. That'll teach me to make up my own definition of "Damage."

 

I have to confess, though, I wouldn't adjust a -620 to a -170 in a pair game if everyone else with the same cards was -800.

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You may now, if you like, point your finger at me, jump up and down, and yell "Nyah, nyah, nyah! You were wrong!"

I would only do that if it didn't mean I was wrong, too. That'll teach me to make up my own definition of "Damage."

 

I have to confess, though, I wouldn't adjust a -620 to a -170 in a pair game if everyone else with the same cards was -800.

TD must not use the table results from other tables as any sort of basis for a ruling. That is plain wrong.

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TD must not use the table results from other tables as any sort of basis for a ruling. That is plain wrong.

ok, but unless the revised laws book contains a definition of "damage" (the previous one did not), my intuitive sense of the term is that a pair that got a 100% board was not "damaged."

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I totally understand JB's frustration over this infraction of the rules, and understand why she feels she was damaged by it, but I still can see no logical bridge reason for opener to bid again over 5

 

I did not mean to imply that the results at other tables should influence the decision director made, only to confirm whether damage was "actual" or "imagined"

 

We are all with jilly on this one

 

Tony

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I think there's a lot of quibbling going on here when we are all basically agreed.

 

i) If you already have a 100% matchpoint result, the TD may decide not to bother adjusting in your faviour (or the non-offending side may not bother asking for a ruling). It is however good practice to adjust anyway, because it educates the pairs concerned about the Laws, so next time, when there is an adjustment, they aren't confused about "inconsistent" application of the laws.

 

ii) If you are in weighted adjustment land, you will need to calculate the matchpoints for each of the components of your putative weighted adjusted score, take the weighted average, and see if that is more or fewer matchpoints that the original score, before knowing if there was damage or not and hence if you are going to adjust or not (if this confuses anyone I can give an example).

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but I still can see no logical bridge reason for opener to bid again over 5

Hi Tony,

 

After receiving UI opener made 2 bids, not one and his first bid easily could have LA. If it is the case absence of logical bridge reason to bid over 5 could be irrelevant, because we do not know if 5 bid would be made without UI.

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ii) If you are in weighted adjustment land, you will need to calculate the matchpoints for each of the components of your putative weighted adjusted score, take the weighted average, and see if that is more or fewer matchpoints that the original score, before knowing if there was damage or not and hence if you are going to adjust or not (if this confuses anyone I can give an example).

Are you sure, Frances? It seems to me that procedure contravenes what I said earlier, and also contravenes the examples in the White Book. But maybe there's something else of which I"m not aware. :angry:

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ii) If you are in weighted adjustment land, you will need to calculate the matchpoints for each of the components of your putative weighted adjusted score, take the weighted average, and see if that is more or fewer matchpoints that the original score, before knowing if there was damage or not and hence if you are going to adjust or not (if this confuses anyone I can give an example).

Are you sure, Frances? It seems to me that procedure contravenes what I said earlier, and also contravenes the examples in the White Book. But maybe there's something else of which I"m not aware. :)

I don't think it contravenes the examples in the white book at all - are we talking at cross purposes?

 

Clearly if you are giving a weighted score at matchpoints, we have to calculate the matchpoints for each component, and then weight these; it is obviously crazy to calculate a weighted score and then matchpoint it (if it's not yet obvious, consider 75% of +650 and 25% of +680 when the rest of the traveller is flat in +650).

 

Having done all of this, and found out what our proposed matchpoint ruling is, it seems obvious common sense to me* that we don't give the ruling at all, if the resulting matchpoint score is worse than the original one.

 

Forgetting the weighted score part of it for a minute, suppose a pair defend 4H and take it one off. They claim that without MI, they would have bid 4S. The TD agrees that there was MI, but looks at the hands and observes that 4S has four inescapable losers. He won't give a ruling, but will keep the table result. The same will be true with a weighted adjustment, it's just that you can't tell if the weighted adjustment is going to be better or worse than the table result until you calculate its matchpoints.

 

*it's always worrying saying "obvious common sense"

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TD must not use the table results from other tables as any sort of basis for a ruling. That is plain wrong.

ok, but unless the revised laws book contains a definition of "damage" (the previous one did not), my intuitive sense of the term is that a pair that got a 100% board was not "damaged."

If the table result with and without the infraction results in the same matchpoint score, it just means that the damage was inconsequential, but the damage might still be there.

 

However, I think it's still wrong for the TD to use this in his ruling. What if one of the other boards later has a scoring correction? E.g. suppose the infraction causes you to get +400, where you would have gotten +500 without it, that's 100 points of damage, but they could both be cold tops so it doesn't seem to matter. Then a board is corrected, and some other pair has a +420, now the infraction causes you to lose a matchpoint.

 

Also, rulings generally need to be made in a reasonable amount of time. Allowing other table results to influence the ruling implies that you have to wait until the end of the session, unless it's a barometer game.

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What I was thinking is that the determination of damage, per the laws, has nothing to do with matchpoints or imps - it has to do solely with the scoring table in Law 77. Or so it seems to me. The laws then, given damage, require the TD to adjust the score, but that's a separate issue.

 

If the expected aggregate score that might have been obtained by the NOS absent the infraction is worse than the actual score, then there is no damage. That's your example case. If, however, there is damage, you should adjust the score. I suppose it is possible that in computing a weighted score, one might arrive at a result which either does not affect the final matchpoint (or IMP) score or even makes it worse for the NOS, but coming from a "no weighted scores" jurisdiction, I can't think of an example. Perhaps you have one or two? In any case, I can understand not wanting to adjust if the end result doesn't help the NOS, but I'm not sure the law as written permits the TD to do that. I do need to think on this further - the thought that I might feel required by the law to give a score adjustment that actually worsens the NOS's final result bothers me - and I'm sure doing so would bother the players! ;)

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