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Awful slam


awm

Who's fault?  

18 members have voted

  1. 1. Who's fault?

    • North
      12
    • South
      2
    • Both
      4
    • Neither
      0
    • This is a great contract, WTP?
      0


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[hv=d=w&v=n&n=sktxhaj98xxxdjtxc&s=sxxhtxdakqxxxcaxx]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv]

 

Pass - 1 - Pass - 2(1)

Dbl - 2 - 3 - 3

Pass - 4 - 5 - Pass(2)

Pass - 6 - All Pass

 

(1) Game forcing

(2) Forcing, obviously

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1. 1: not my style, altho I suspect that it would get a lot of support on this forum. 2nd seat unfavourable, 3 looks about right to me... if there is one seat, and one vulnerability, in which one should have a sound preempt, it is 2nd red v white.

 

2. 3: close. We want to emphasize our diamond suit, but what are we planning to do next, should partner bid, say, 3N? We have a known heart fit, which we are not telling partner about: I would prefer a forcing 3. Having said that, partner's hand has grown up enormously on the auction if we have that sequence: xx Kxx AKxxx xxx makes slam reasonable, and we have more than that for our 2 bid.

 

3. 6: our hand has become enormous, but is it THAT good? Opposite a stiff heart, we are going to have handling problems on many layouts.. assuming they tap us at trick one (we can't assume partner holds the club A), we need to be able to establish hearts and draw trump and get back to our hand.. yes, that is possible, but is it probable?

 

I'd assign most of the blame to North, because he made two debatable calls (note, I did not include 4 as a debatable call.... it is close, but I prefer 4 to 3), each of which, in my view, is less sound than South's debatable 3 call.

 

Nor do I criticize the forcing pass: opposite Ax AKxxxx Jxx xx, wouldn't we want to be in slam?

 

So N 80% and S 20%

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The worst mistake is south's forcing pass. He already showed both the approximate shape and nature of his hand by rebidding diamonds over 3.

Does the immediate diamond rebid (instead of a forcing pass over 3C) say anything about South's values? If it suggests a weaker hand, then the later forcing pass makes sense.

 

Edit: never mind, I think the forcing pass makes sense regardless of the earlier 3D bid. He's asking North to consider bidding 5 with extra offense, and after all he has a hand worth 7 tricks in diamonds and 1 or 2 in clubs. It's not his fault that North bids SIX with his 9 points and moth-eaten heart suit.

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Pass - 1 - Pass - 2 ==>GF, of course

Dbl - 2 - 3 - 3 ===> Is pass forcing or not?

 

I think South pass still forcing, give chance to partner bid 3 (show minimum opening with fit, or rebid 3 (extra longth). Now, South can decide which one contract (4/5), or ask pd about stopper for 3NT. :(

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My point is that 3 already showed good offense. South could pass on hands with 6 diamonds. So in that context he has only 6 diamonds, a minimum, club length, and a club honor. Double is clear IMO. North doesn't have to pass it (such as on this hand he obviously won't with a third diamond and a club void). He will know that south neither passed over 3 nor doubled 3.
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