Jump to content

Swiss - table 1 - last round - Deal 3


kgr

Recommended Posts

[hv=d=s&v=e&n=sat8ht7dt864c9763&w=s762hak4d973caqj5&e=skqj543hqj86d52c4&s=s9h9532dakqjckt82]399|300|Scoring: IMP[/hv]

(1)-p-(1)-p

(2)-All pass

I could have presented this as a bidding problem for E or for W and also for N.

How could EW have avoided this disaster (You will not like this, but 2 by E the first round would have shown and 2-suiter).

Link to comment
Share on other sites

[hv=d=s&v=e&n=sat8ht7dt864c9763&w=s762hak4d973caqj5&e=skqj543hqj86d52c4&s=s9h9532dakqjckt82]399|300|Scoring: IMP[/hv]

(1)-p-(1)-p

(2)-All pass

I could have presented this as a bidding problem for E or for W and also for N.

How could EW have avoided this disaster (You will not like this, but 2 by E the first round would have shown and 2-suiter).

This is precisely WHY many pairs play that the 2 bid on the first round shows SPADES...

 

In any case, if you can't bid spades on the first round, then you need to introduce them on the second

Link to comment
Share on other sites

I feel much more strongly that west should double 1 than that east should bid 2 on the second round.

Curiously enough, while I agree that West should double 1, I can understand a partnership style that precludes it (double is either shape-suitable or a strong hand). But I cannot for the life of me understand an East who passes out 2.

 

For drill: what is 2 at East's second turn in this auction? It isn't silly to play double as majors, either equal length or longer hearts, and 2 as majors with longer spades.

 

For extra drill: if you do play 2 as natural, how strong is it? At first sight it may appear that you ought to have a pretty good hand to wander into an auction where LHO has opened, partner has not acted, and you are bidding a suit that will not always break very well. But experience suggests that an immediate 2 is better played as a decent weak jump overcall with a good suit, while a delayed 2 shows a good hand.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

For another drill we can spend time wondering what all the bids mean when we find out defending 2 in what might not have been a fit was our best spot. But there is only so much heart I can put into this discussion when we both appear to think both players should have acted and merely differ in extent of blame.

 

I find your suggestion about a direct 2 being weaker decidedly bizarre.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

I agree.

 

Somehow when i first looked at this problem i thought that the opening bid had been 1

As a traditionalist, I'm pleased to learn that this still isn't a double of 1.

Does your partner agree?

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Thanks all for the answers.

After the hand I agreed with my partner that I should have DBL'ed with the West hand. With 3/3 majors I guess this is a minimum DBL? At the table I didn't DBL because I feared that we would go to an unmakeable 4/3 fit.

In pass out seat I would suppose that both 2 and 2 by East would be natural. We play that a direct 2 or 2 shows 6-4 and 6-4.

Regards,

Koen

PS: Opps looked at our score of the previous round (20-10). As a result they were fully aware that they needed a good score to win the event....The 3 hands resulted in a big loss for us and going from 1st to 3rd place.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

R/W east can't really bid 2 over 1, but balancing 2 seems very easy. Selling to 2 is strange.

Why would it be strange to fail to balance into a suit an opponent has bid holding an aceless 9 count when their suit (which may not even be a fit) is likely to be breaking badly?

 

I don't doubt that many would balance with 2, perhaps including me. But I think this thread is just another case of the subconcious impact of knowing the full hand. Yes, bidding is great when RHO is a 4 count with three spades....

Link to comment
Share on other sites

I don't doubt that many would balance with 2, perhaps including me. But I think this thread is just another case of the subconcious impact of knowing the full hand. Yes, bidding is great when RHO is a 4 count with three spades....

I am far from certain, that my partnership would reach 4.

 

But I would ever, never sell-out to 2.

 

Worst-case scenario leaves partner with 7 hcp, but that would mean opponents are close to game. In many of these cases another try would have been made.

 

Even if we assign full values to the opponents, game is not that far-fetched.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

I agree that somebody arguably should have done something, and another current thread explored some of the parameters of the modern takeout double.

 

I tend to think that I would usually double as west, simply because I have so much that it I pass, partner will never play me for this, and I have no convenient way back into the auction later. But maybe I am being influenced by seeing the whole hand.

 

I also tend to think that I would reopen with 2, hating it for the reasons suggested by josh. In another thread I suggested that when one lacks the tools to make a better call, one should not overbid in an effort to make up for it. The context was different, altho it involved spades as well.

 

Here, the missing tool was a natural 2.. I believe that this is an incredibly useful tool, and am astounded that anyone still plays it as the other two suits, given that we have double, and 2N for them, and (as I play it, 2 as well). How many ways do we need to enter the auction with a specific holding? And at such a cost.

 

West has an easy game bid after a natural and immediate 2 call, even with his diamond holding, and he probably has it over a delayed call, given the methods.

 

I see the blame as equal and I also don't think that anyone did anything utterly silly. This is the kind of result, given the method, that I could have if I were having a glass-half empty kind of day as either player...ok, make that a glass 3/4 empty.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

R/W east can't really bid 2 over 1, but balancing 2 seems very easy. Selling to 2 is strange.

Why would it be strange to fail to balance into a suit an opponent has bid holding an aceless 9 count when their suit (which may not even be a fit) is likely to be breaking badly?

It would be strange because this hand has just about zero defense against clubs but quite some tricks with spades as trumps. Having no aces but KQJ QJ in my suits is an argument for bidding 2, not against doing so.

 

But I think this thread is just another case of the subconcious impact of knowing the full hand. Yes, bidding is great when RHO is a 4 count with three spades....

I can't stop you from thinking so if you wish. I'm just stating my opinion to the problem and that is I find it strange not to bid 2.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

I don't think 2 on the second round is clear. East has no reason to think anyone has psyched, he has poor spade spots, and the auction suggests a misfit. 2 could easily be going for 500, and this is an auction where if you are in trouble they will catch you .
Link to comment
Share on other sites

I think 2S is actually quite clear on the 2nd round of bidding.

 

We can argue about the merits of a takeout double from west. I understand it when it works, but it can also blow up in your face in competitive auctions.

 

I think the chances of you going for 500 are extremely small since all of your trumps are sitting behind the trump length. So, when you exit your hand, you will always have potential to score your small trumps. Its not like you are sitting with K98432.

 

On this auction, partner still rates to have some values, and I think there is a good chance they have a fit.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Balicki held KQT73 43 QJT9 94 at none vul in second seat in a close Vanderbilt match. He saw this auction:

 

Pass-Pass*-1-Pass

1-Pass-2-Pass

2

 

and he came in with 2. He played it there and made an overtrick.

 

* I wonder what a 2 opening bid would have shown.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

[hv=d=s&v=e&n=sat8ht7dt864c9763&w=s762hak4d973caqj5&e=skqj543hqj86d52c4&s=s9h9532dakqjckt82]399|300|Scoring: IMP[/hv]

(1)-p-(1)-p

(2)-All pass

I could have presented this as a bidding problem for E or for W and also for N.

How could EW have avoided this disaster (You will not like this, but 2 by E the first round would have shown and 2-suiter).

=.=

 

This is absurd.

 

West shouldn't bid X, unlike how some players said, because of the 3-3-3-4 and no spade values. 14 pts isn't everything.

 

North has no reason at all for bidding 1. I would bid 1NT!

 

Assume that North is bidding 1 anyway, I would look 'huh?', then pass.

 

When it goes 2 West can't bid unfortunately, I agree wit his pass.

 

When it gets passed to East I think I would double, I think it is competitive. Partner must have some points (declarer is minimum, responder is minimum...) and can either pass for penalty or bid 2. You are unlikely to get to 2 unless you knew North had only three spades, which presumes some cheating on your part :)

Link to comment
Share on other sites

For another drill we can spend time wondering what all the bids mean when we find out defending 2 in what might not have been a fit was our best spot. But there is only so much heart I can put into this discussion when we both appear to think both players should have acted and merely differ in extent of blame.

 

I find your suggestion about a direct 2 being weaker decidedly bizarre.

You may be right. I say only that if I had

 

KQJ10xx xx xxx Kx

 

I would consider it more effective to bid 2 over 1 immediately than to pass for the duration of the auction and watch partner lead a non-spade against 3NT (or any other contract, for that matter). With another ace, I would be content to pass at my first turn, then bid spades at my second, because I do not anticipate the auction being at an inconvenient level when my second turn comes.

 

Your mileage may vary, but the main point I was trying to make is that if you and your partner have agreed to play that an immediate 2 is natural, you do still need to have a good idea of how strong it is. Would you raise it with, say, an ace and a king and a couple of spades?

 

One more drill: if you open one of something, and partner responds 1, and the next hand bids a natural 2, what is your double? This may seem a simple question, but not all that long ago I watched a pair of champions conduct exactly this auction, and the double was explained (but not intended) as "three-card spade support". Presumably 3 would have shown four-card support.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Join the conversation

You can post now and register later. If you have an account, sign in now to post with your account.

Guest
Reply to this topic...

×   Pasted as rich text.   Paste as plain text instead

  Only 75 emoji are allowed.

×   Your link has been automatically embedded.   Display as a link instead

×   Your previous content has been restored.   Clear editor

×   You cannot paste images directly. Upload or insert images from URL.

Loading...
×
×
  • Create New...