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black two suiter


mikeh

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[hv=d=s&v=n&n=s106ha10863dj65cq105&s=saj742hkqdcakj983]133|200|Scoring: IMP

I didn't think there was much to the hand, but we were the only pair to reach slam, out of the 16 times it had been played on BBO last night, so I thought I would post it as an exercise in constructive bidding. Also, as a minor point, how do you play 6 on a trump lead? I got a high diamond lead, so played A and a spade and ruffed two spades in dummy (they were 4-2 so it was trivial thereafter)

 

Our auction:

 

1 1

2 3 showing values

3 4

4 4

5 6[/hv]

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Two explanations for the field:

 

1. Most bbo pairs have no agreements after a reverse so the strong hand plays it safe by settling for game.

 

2. For pairs that do have agreements, the North player chose to show the weaker of the two options.

 

I expect (1) to account for 80-90% of the field, and (2) to account for the other 10-20%.

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I would never reach this slam I think. Startig with 1 doesn't work this time at all.

Why would you open this hand 1? The hand is quite strong and the clubs are longer and stronger. Why would you not bid the suits in the natural order?

 

This is aside from the fact that you don't even have to jump as Mike did if you feel that it is not worth a jump rebid (which it is).

 

I suspect that some pairs did not reach slam because the opener rebid 1 rather than 2. It is hard to catch up after a 1 rebid.

 

I doubt that many would open 1 on these cards.

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The doubleton spade holding seems to be the key to the good slam, but what if he were dealt xxx ATxx Jxx QTx ? Would you be able to stay away from 6 then ? Opener must still bid 3 to show 6-5. Responder takes you back to 4, and thereafter he probably still cue-bids 4 over opener's 4 in case opener has AKQxx Kx - AJ9xxx.
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The doubleton spade holding seems to be the key to the good slam, but what if he were dealt xxx ATxx Jxx QTx ? Would you be able to stay away from 6 then ? Opener must still bid 3 to show 6-5. Responder takes you back to 4, and thereafter he probably still cue-bids 4 over opener's 4 in case opener has AKQxx Kx - AJ9xxx.

If he held xxx in spades, and we confirm a 5 card spade suit, why would he not raise spades? No, 4 denies as many as 3. On the auction, when I bid 5, I was hoping for his actual hand with one more club and one fewer spade... x Axxxx xxx Qxxx was the idea I had in mind (altho 1=4=4=4 would be even better). Then I hear 5 over 5 and bid the grand.

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Responder could have a much better hand and bid 4C even holding 3 spades, but of course in that case 6C should be very good as well. So basically I am nitpicking as usual while agreeing with Mike at the same time

 

I think North bid very well, after the 3C bid plus 4H cue south has to drive to slam at least (as south did). I am pleased to see that the agreement that 3C showed values was very useful.

 

How do you view 5H Mike, is it a way to force north to cue spade shortness? Obviously south must have a very strong hand so I agree this does not deny a control in spades, but what message do you think it sends about the other two suits? Would 4S suggest more spade honors and would it defer north from cueing shortness? Do you think 4S is passable?

 

Sorry for asking so many questions, I hope they are not all stupid.

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The doubleton spade holding seems to be the key to the good slam, but what if he were dealt xxx ATxx Jxx QTx ? Would you be able to stay away from 6 then ? Opener must still bid 3 to show 6-5. Responder takes you back to 4, and thereafter he probably still cue-bids 4 over opener's 4 in case opener has AKQxx Kx - AJ9xxx.

If he held xxx in spades, and we confirm a 5 card spade suit, why would he not raise spades? No, 4 denies as many as 3. On the auction, when I bid 5, I was hoping for his actual hand with one more club and one fewer spade... x Axxxx xxx Qxxx was the idea I had in mind (altho 1=4=4=4 would be even better). Then I hear 5 over 5 and bid the grand.

Ok, may be he'd raise s with three small s. But does he have to ? You have a known 9 card fit club fit with the opener's hand taking the tap. It's easy to construct hands where a 4-1 break would shred this hand to pieces where 5 does a lot better.

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although opener 5/6 in the black--may i beg the question if you happen to be 5/5 black void diamonds and KQ3 hts

 

with these shape hands 5/5 and good values-if one opps 1 spade,and opps frisky,one can be bounced by opps,opener may not be able to show club suit,whereas with no opposition bidding 1cl-pass-1d/1h-pass

1sp-pas -2d -pass

2sp and see what happens

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I would never reach this slam I think. Startig with 1 doesn't work this time at all.

1? Why would you ever start 1 if you can simply reverse and control the auction?

 

If this were a minimum hand you could argue about it since it's a style issue (see the many threads ;) ), but opening 1 with this is just poor bridge imo.

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