MP Decision

[mtvesuvius]

[hv=d=n&v=e&s=sjxhaxxxxdxxckqxx]133|100|Scoring: MP

N      S

1♦ - 1♥

1♠ - 2♣*

2♦ - ?

*1RF: I hate this, but partner wanted to play it...[/hv]

[vuroth]

2NT?

[rogerclee]

Partner has a minimum and is either 4-5 or 4-6. Pass!

[jdonn]

Partner has a minimum and is either 4-5 or 4-6. Pass!

Cheers. Wtp?

[Phil]

I would have bid 1N the round before.

[kgr]

Partner has a minimum and is either 4-5 or 4-6. Pass!

What should he bid with:

♠Qxxx

♥Qx

♦AKJx

♣xxx

Anyway, I don't like 2♦ at MP's. I bid 2NT

[P_Marlowe]

Hi,

 

Pass.

 

If you intend to sell the hand as inv., than you should

have bid 2NT, not 2C, because you will quite often be

enplayed after openers answer.

If you now bid 2NT, this showes a game forcing hand,

16-?

 

As far as I understood, this would also be the meaning, if

2C was GF.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

 

PS: I like to play FS as inv.+, assuming 1RF and inv.+

is the same.

Or does 1RF mean, that bidding FSF denies GF values?

[Finch]

Partner has a minimum and is either 4-5 or 4-6. Pass!

What should he bid with:

♠Qxxx

♥Qx

♦AKJx

♣xxx

Anyway, I don't like 2♦ at MP's. I bid 2NT

He either opened 1NT, rebid 1NT, or (if that isn't the partnership style), bid 2H over 2C.

 

I think your real problem was the FSF bid last round. I think either you call it a not great 10-count and bid 1NT over 1S, or you call it a nice 10-count and bid 2NT over 1S (this may depend a bit on your opening bid style). While that might be the wrong partscore, you won't miss an 8-card heart fit for game because partner will show 3-card heart support over 1NT or 2NT if he isn't passing.

 

If you bid 2NT over 2D now, that should be forcing, even playing FSF as a one round force only (as I do in one partnership). Partner has denied a decent club stop, but you apparently have one. If you have good clubs, why didn't you bid NT last round? The only answer is because you have a game force and are looking for alternatives. Similarly, 2H or 2S over 2D are forcing.

 

In summary, even playing FSF as a "one round force" the general rule is that the FSF-bidder can pass opener's minimum rebid, but if he bids again that's forcing.

 

Thus you now have to pass 2D.

[Stephen Tu]

Uncharacteristically, I have to disagree with Frances here. There are multiple ways to respond to 4th suit I+ and different ways to structure responder's continuations.

 

If playing as described on Richard Pavlicek's site & in "Modern Bridge Conventions", for example, 2nt is clearly non-forcing. That's because in that system, 1♦-1♥-1♠-2nt is played as GF, as it was played by most many decades ago and still played that way by a small minority today. So with good clubs, NT wasn't bid last round since too strong for 1nt, not strong enough for 2nt. I actually like this, you can break up your GF NT strength ranges unambiguously, get out lower in 2h opposite a min sometimes, and opposite a min GF opener can still probe for a suit alternative at the 3 level instead of having a guess over 3nt.

 

Also, in response to the 4th suit bid, some people prefer to have the 2h preference guarantee 3 cd support, with the 2d rebid being ambiguous in length, rather than the other way around with 2h being 2/3 and 2d promising 5.

[skjaeran]

I would have rebid 1NT.

And I agree with Frances' reasoning above - have to pass 2♦ now.

[mtvesuvius]

OK, thanks for all the responses... I did pass 2♦, and after we made 3 for +110 my partner criticized me for not bidding 2NT, because it was MPs. Turns out partner had T9xx Kx AKQxx xx or something similar, and 2NT and possibly 3NT (depending on the defense) was an 8 or 9 on an 11 top...