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What is going on here?


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No special agreements about this sequence but some of the general agreements that might or might not be relevant are:

 

5card major & better minor & 12-14NT

2-o-1 10+

Cuebids 1st or 2nd round control up the line

RKC 1430

 

What is going on in the auction:

 

Matchpoints / all vul

1 - (1) - 2 - (pass)

3 - (pass) - 3 - (pass)

4 - (pass) - 4NT

 

What does each bid mean?

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3 = Splinter

3 = 4 + 5+ (4-6/4-7 fairly likely)

4 = Fit, nothing to cue.

Right, 3 must be a splinter.

 

Responder could have 4 (with a GF hand), as can opener. The problem seems to be how much focus (if any?) should be made on getting out of clubs and in to a 4-4 -fit. It's matchpoints if that makes a difference.

 

Does 3 always show 4? Or could it be first step towards a club slam (a cuebid)?

Does 4 show 4? Does it deny a -control? A -void (4054)?

If responder keycards with 4NT, are clubs or spades trumps?

 

Any thoughts anybody :) ?

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3 = splinter

3 = cue for clubs

4 = I think you are showing a 5-6, and its MPs so I want to get to a better scoring game.

4N = Respond to RKC for clubs, already, and stop messing around :)

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3 is splinter, 4+ clubs.

3 is cue.

4 is cue, heart singleton, no A but K is possible not willing to cue a king on partner's singelton. Probably has VERY good trumps.

4NT RCKB for clubs (you could stretch to say it is actually grand slam force since we know all of partner's aces except for the trump honnors)

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Didn't 2 club denied 4 spades already?

So where is the point to define later bids as showing length in that suit?

 

To me 3 is a splinter, 3 would be a forward going move, showing a control. 4 Spade shows a control there, denying a diamond control, so I would play partner for a strong hand with weak diamonds, maybe something like AKxx,V,QJxxx,AKxx....

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Didn't 2 club denied 4 spades already?

So where is the point to define later bids as showing length in that suit?

 

To me 3 is a splinter, 3 would be a forward going move, showing a control. 4 Spade shows a control there, denying a diamond control, so I would play partner for a strong hand with weak diamonds, maybe something like AKxx,V,QJxxx,AKxx....

I think it's normal for a GF responding hand with 5+ & 4 to bid 2 and then later spades. Only if clubs are not really worth mentioning, I would depart from this.

 

Your example hand contains a heart void, and one would like to show that at some point. Wonder what the difference is between 3 followed by 4, and 4 (void) directly after 2.

 

Nobody has yet mentioned the possibility of bidding 4 over 3. Since no "minorwood" or something has been agreed this is just a waiting bid of some sort. Among other possible hand types, this could clearly be bid on a minimum hand without a diamond control. So if 4 were just a cuebid, it should show extras too.

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I would take it as opener having some 4144 with around 18-20 hcp. He splintered in support of clubs, but then decided to support spades, seeing responder has 4 of them.

 

The 4NT bid would be blackwood for spades, which is the last agreed (and bid) suit.

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4S shows 4, 3S does not. I think this is standard.

Personally, I agree with this.

 

Do you have an opinion about if 4 shows, denies or is unclear about a diamond control?

I think it doesn't say anything about a diamond control. I think that 4C, 4D and 4H are cues for clubs and opener bid 4S in case responder is serious about spades (3S is ambiguous). Since it is non-forcing it also denies a big hand. Also, opener is likely 4144.

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Couldn't 3 ask for a stopper?

The jumpcue shows a splinter, the non-jump cue simply power and could be stopper asking.

I suppose you can have different agreements, but this is normal where I live.

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