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Interpret Bidding Please


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4 is a non-existing bid, West ought to respect East's captainship and pass 3NT. Maybe he has a 7-4 or 6-5 shape, or maybe 3=6=0=4 hoping that East understands that he has spades support since he wouldn't otherwise bid on after 3NT.

 

4NT ought to be to play and I think that is how it was meant.

 

5 must be an answer to Blackwood (misunderstanding!). If it was natural it's hard to explain why he didn't bid 2 at his second turn. I suppose he could have been 6-5 or 7-5 and didn't bid 2 because he thought he was too weak to bid his hand three times, but that wouldn't explain his next 6 bid.

 

6 is to play. East must have four spades and and six diamonds and tried to mastermind the bidding by not mentioning his diamonds initially. Not sure why he bid 6 instead of 5. Maybe he was afraid that 5 would be taken as king asking or some such.

 

6 shows three spades. So now it looks as if West is 3=6=0=4. I still think he should have passed 3NT though, and personally I would have preferred a 2 or 2 rebid but maybe the hearts are very good.

 

6NT suggest four not so good spades, not willing to play in the 4-3 fit.

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Hi,

 

basically I agree with Helene that 4C does not really exist,

at least undiscussed.

 

Assuming I had to assign a meaning to 4C:

4C should show a max. hand, with interest to play Slam

in hearts in case responder is max.

3NT should always be based on a hand containing 2 hearts,

so opener knowes, the partnership has a fit.

=> Most likely it makes sense to play 4C as shortage, but

values would be fine as well.

 

From this would follow, that 4NT is KC for hearts, 5C showing

0 or 3, given that opener has max. the answer has to be based

on 3 KC.

 

I give up interpreting 6D / 6NT, since 6D would be a try for 7,

and 6NT being what ever ...

7 may still be in the picture, if one assumes, that 4C showes a

shortage and responder is looking at Axxx

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

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1♥ - 1♠

2♥ - 3NT

4♣ - 4NT

5♣ - 6♦

6♠ - 6NT

When I see auctions like this, here's my thinking: It's a bidding fight.

 

Opener needed to pass 3NT. From there ensues a series of jousts and likely misunderstandings landing us in a doomed contract.

 

My guess is that 4 and 5 were intended as Goober (sadly, an 'out of the mist' 4 after a NT bid is always goober by my pickup pards). The 6 response snapped openers eyes open, and so he ran to 6.

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What would you think each bid means after 3nt?

I don't know, but I'd have started doubling by now.

 

Helene's analysis of what has gone on looks pretty good to me.

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it's not easy to construct a layout where the bidding makes any sense, but here's a shot.

 

south: xxx KQ109xx - A10xx

north: KJxxx - AKJ10x KJx

 

3NT was clumsy, but looked the most likely spot and protected the black tenaces

4C was natural, figuring that 3NT was unlikely to be the optimal spot

4NT was another attempt to sign-off

5C was 1 key for clubs, thinking that 4NT was RKC1430

6D was a belated attempt to show his hand, and offer a place to play

6S was preference

6NT appreciated that spades could not possibly be right opposite no raise

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As rfedrick stated there are hands, where the south bidding makes sense. Look at the point where North bid 3NT.

 

North must have two hearts, he cannot have 4S, longer diamonds AND enough strength to bid 3NT. In that case the bidding should have started: 1 - 2 - 2 - 2

 

With 5 and even as few as 4+ the bidding starts: 1 - 1 - 2 - 3

 

The conclusion is, that north has pretty well described his hand and South is now commander of the bidding.

 

So 4C shows an very unbalanced hand, with mild slam interest in or possibly , if partner has fitting values. Partner may sign off or get the slam machinery going.

 

The rest of the bidding was struggling and wriggling and was already explained by others.

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