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which is true?


luke warm

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the universe had a cause, or

 

the universe has always existed

uhmm...

 

not another one of these.

 

if it did have a cause, did it have to have a spiritual cause? can it just be a physical cause?

 

are the two questions really mutually exclusive?

 

anyway. have fun with another science vs. religion thread.

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the universe had a cause, or

 

the universe has always existed

Hmmm. What is the connection between those two statements?

 

You could reasonably ask whether:

 

1. the universe had a cause or

2. the universe did not have a cause

 

or whether:

 

1. the universe has always existed or

2. the universe has not always existed.

 

But the questions you did ask don't have that same relationship.

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You could reasonably ask whether:

 

1. the universe had a cause or

2. the universe did not have a cause

 

or whether:

 

1. the universe has always existed or

2. the universe has not always existed.

 

But the questions you did ask don't have that same relationship.

I Strogly believe it had a cause, but if it did not, my second best guess will be that it always existed (kinda boring, isn't it?, who wants to live forever?, at least in this world hehe)

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I Strogly believe it had a cause, but if it did not, my second best guess will be that it always existed (kinda boring, isn't it?, who wants to live forever?, at least in this world hehe)

Before the big bang, no information is available. Fun to speculate about, maybe, but what does it really matter?

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This looks like the beginning of a 32-page debate on the definition of the word "cause".

Hey Winston you are ruining the game, it's supposed to be 31 pages of discussion about an obscure issue, and only at page 32 we are supposed to discover that the crux of the matter is different uses of the word "cause".

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This reminds me of a story. Most things do. It's age.

 

 

When I was in college we were reading St. Thomas Aquinas. The assignment was to read his four, or was it five, proofs of the existence of God and to be prepared to discuss the one we found most convincing. Me being me, I raised my hand and asked what we should do if we did not find any of them convincing. I was told I should then be prepared to discuss the one that I found least convincing. Naturally I was called upon the next class period to present my thoughts. After giving what I regarded as a devastating criticism of the argument from cause, the instructor asked "Did you notice that Aquinas said efficient cause?". I had not. "That's the whole point, sit down".

 

I think he didn't like me. And me such a nice guy.

 

But I learned something. Apparently Aristotle listed four types of causation.

The efficient cause

The teleological cause

The ontological cause

Some other sort of cause.

 

 

I have always wanted to make use of this when a student asks why he failed:

 

 

The efficient cause is that you got too many of the answers wrong. The teleological cause is that you are stupid. The ontological cause is to prevent idiots from getting college degrees. I would have to look up the other cause.

 

But I'm a gentle soul so I never did this.

 

Probably one could find applications of these different causes in hand analysis as well.

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1. the universe has always existed or

2. the universe has not always existed.

very well, let's take this one

What would be the purpose of such a futile discussion?

 

We've got absolutely no information about anything prior to the big bang. And we won't have in our lifetime, most probably not in the lifetime of humankind.

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Apparently Aristotle listed four types of causation.

The efficient cause

The teleological cause

The ontological cause

Some other sort of cause. (Winton's edit: the B-Cause)

 

Question:

 

So, how did Aristotle know about these four types of causation? Did somebody tell him or where they written on two small stone tablets? Or did he make them up himself. Did Aristotle's cause cause cause?

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This reminds me of a story. Most things do. It's age.

 

 

When I was in college we were reading St. Thomas Aquinas. The assignment was to read his four, or was it five, proofs of the existence of God and to be prepared to discuss the one we found most convincing. Me being me, I raised my hand and asked what we should do if we did not find any of them convincing. I was told I should then be prepared to discuss the one that I found least convincing. Naturally I was called upon the next class period to present my thoughts. After giving what I regarded as a devastating criticism of the argument from cause, the instructor asked "Did you notice that Aquinas said efficient cause?". I had not. "That's the whole point, sit down".

 

I think he didn't like me. And me such a nice guy.

 

But I learned something. Apparently Aristotle listed four types of causation.

The efficient cause

The teleological cause

The ontological cause

Some other sort of cause.

 

 

I have always wanted to make use of this when a student asks why he failed:

 

 

The efficient cause is that you got too many of the answers wrong. The teleological cause is that you are stupid. The ontological cause is to prevent idiots from getting college degrees. I would have to look up the other cause.

 

But I'm a gentle soul so I never did this.

 

Probably one could find applications of these different causes in hand analysis as well.

This website: Philosophy Professor lists four causes, but it uses less fussy terms than you. :rolleyes:

 

It seems that the one you're missing is what this guy calls the material cause, but it's hard to tell.

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The big bang happened, for us, about 14 billion years ago. Before that there was no time, no space and no space-time. Thats another way of saying that there was no "before". So the universe has always existed.
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Ken, I think you messed it up. The teleological cause it to prevent idiots from getting a degree,

 

What would be the purpose of such a futile discussion?

It must be futile to discuss the purpose of a futile discussion, but maybe we can discuss its cause ;)

Based on the watercooler, I think we can accept that the futile discussion has always existed.

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Ken, I think you messed it up. The teleological cause it to prevent idiots from getting a degree,

 

What would be the purpose of such a futile discussion?

It must be futile to discuss the purpose of a futile discussion, but maybe we can discuss its cause ;)

Based on the watercooler, I think we can accept that the futile discussion has always existed.

Clarify, please. Do you mean futile discussion has always existed or do you mean to say only that futility as a subject of discussion has always existed?

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1. the universe has always existed or

2. the universe has not always existed.

very well, let's take this one

I don't know why everyone is complaining about this question, it's just asking what people think with the understanding it's a total guess based on feelings and that no one has anything to back up their guess. I would say it has always existed.

 

He was right of course that your original post was not an 'or' type question. It's like asking am I good at bridge or bad at chess? Hmm, maybe both, maybe neither.

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Ken, I think you messed it up. The teleological cause it to prevent idiots from getting a degree,

All of these different causes caused me great confusion. A physics major (I had not yet switched to mathematics) in a humanities class reading Aquinas is actually a pretty sorry sight. To quote that great philosopher H. Belafonte: It was clear as mud but it covered the ground/ And the confusion made my brain go 'round.

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1. the universe has always existed or

2. the universe has not always existed.

very well, let's take this one

I don't know why everyone is complaining about this question, it's just asking what people think with the understanding it's a total guess based on feelings and that no one has anything to back up their guess. I would say it has always existed.

 

He was right of course that your original post was not an 'or' type question. It's like asking am I good at bridge or bad at chess? Hmm, maybe both, maybe neither.

what does 'always' mean?

 

If time is a dimension, as it appears to be, and if reality comprises of 11 dimensions, of which 3 expanded spatially in the big bang and some 7 remain tightly constrained, I am not sure what happened to the dimension we call 'time' at the big bang.. nor whether it means anything to write the words 'before time began'... the very concept of 'before', in this context, refers to time.

 

My guess is that the concepts to which we refer in this thread are noises we can form with our speech organs, or words we can form with our keyboards, but that they don't relate to or describe anything that we can really grasp. But, having written this, I am not going to allow myself to be sucked into further comment on this thread.. (and the reference to being 'sucked in' is not a criticism of anyone: it refers to my tendency to get involved in futile discussions)

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1. the universe has always existed or

2. the universe has not always existed.

very well, let's take this one

Before the big bang, no information is available. Fun to speculate about, maybe, but what does it really matter?

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what does 'always' mean?

I have no idea. So what?

 

1. the universe has always existed or

2. the universe has not always existed.

very well, let's take this one

Before the big bang, no information is available. Fun to speculate about, maybe, but what does it really matter?

Exactly. I'm having fun speculating even though it doesn't really matter, that's all.

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