shanbari Posted February 14, 2009 Report Share Posted February 14, 2009 [hv=d=e&v=b&n=s109742haj10543da9c&w=s653hk962d85ck542&e=sqhq8dqj106caqj876&s=sakj8h7dk7432c1093]399|300|Scoring: IMP[/hv] all play standard 2/1 system. W----N----E----S-----------1C---P1H---P----2C---P3C---P----P----P West 3C supposed to be invitational, but you can see his intention to block NS contract. N/S missed cold 4S contract in VUL. who has more reason to make a bid, and when ? thanks shan Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Hanoi5 Posted February 14, 2009 Report Share Posted February 14, 2009 It should be:1♣-1♦-Pa-1♥2♣-Pa-Pa-2♠Pa-4♠-All pass Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jillybean Posted February 14, 2009 Report Share Posted February 14, 2009 South missed his bid - 1♦ Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
neilkaz Posted February 14, 2009 Report Share Posted February 14, 2009 :) how can S pass the first time with a hand clearly worth an opening bid? Either 1♦ or 1♠ are automatic. (I slightly prefer 1♠). :rolleyes: how can N pass on his first bid ? 1♠ is clear, although I'd consider 2♥ if natural as I play it, but still prefer 1♠ getting the boss suit into the picture and noting we still can have game here. :rolleyes: how can S pass the 2nd time? A take out double with 9 cards in the unbid suits seems totally clear. After that, N's 2nd pass is clear, and while S could balance at the end, it seems a bit risky now and might run into trouble. This hand is a good example of what can happen when General Whiteflag :ph34r: sits across from Colonel Whiteflag :unsure: Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
sireenb Posted February 14, 2009 Report Share Posted February 14, 2009 :) how can S pass the first time with a hand clearly worth an opening bid? Either 1♦ or 1♠ are automatic. (I slightly prefer 1♠). :rolleyes: how can N pass on his first bid ? 1♠ is clear, although I'd consider 2♥ if natural as I play it, but still prefer 1♠ getting the boss suit into the picture and noting we still can have game here. :rolleyes: how can S pass the 2nd time? A take out double with 9 cards in the unbid suits seems totally clear. After that, N's 2nd pass is clear, and while S could balance at the end, it seems a bit risky now and might run into trouble. Exactly, 3 chances missed! :unsure: Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
peachy Posted February 14, 2009 Report Share Posted February 14, 2009 South needed to bid. (1C) 1D (1H) 1S, or (1C) 1S (P) 2H[forcing], and both auctions lead to 4S. It is a bidder's game and I think South has good reason to enter the auction. Other opportunities: After (1C) P (1H), North could have bid a natural 2H. And, after opener rebids 2C, South could enter the auction, maybe by a Dbl which should show a hand that had a flaw for takeout double first round. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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