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Getting to the right slam


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Suppose south opens 2NT.

 

North is looking at twelve points and two five-card suits. He should be thinking:

 

(1) We have at least 32 high, and with my five-card suits this is plenty for 6NT.

(2) We might have a grand slam if partner has the right hand opposite.

 

So from north's perspective at matchpoint scoring, the goal is to determine whether we have a grand. If we have no grand, we should play in 6NT and not six of a suit.

 

I'd start by bidding 3 transfer to hearts. Things get easy now because south should super-accept with four-card support and a nice hand. How you play super-accepts can vary of course, but since hearts are now clearly agreed north can bid blackwood (or whatever form of keycard you like) and find out that there is a missing ace. At this point 6NT is the standout (matchpoint) bid.

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I don't think you can/should get to 6NT if North is the one doing the exploring.

 

South can see he has all the critical intermediates, so if North gives the option then certainly South should go there. But if South had almost the same hand:

 

[hv=s=skj2hkqj7dk7cak43]133|100|[/hv]

 

Now I'd rather be in 6- it's more likely to make, and it's more likely to make an overtrick if they don't find the spade lead (draw trump, pitch a spade on the club, run your winners and crossruff the hand out).

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It's an interesting matchpoint question whether north (or even south for that matter) should choose 6 or 6NT if faced with that choice. It's very possible hearts are worth an extra trick should they have an ace that they don't lead right away. It could be the spade loser going on clubs as the last poster said, or the club loser going on spades opposite AKQx KQJx Kx Kxx. I'm fairly sure I would pick 6, 6NT on a guess just seems too swingly for me. We might even be off a black AK if south has everything else.

 

Anyway I'm sure I wouldn't have a very scientific auction once south super accepts the first transfer. If he didn't then north would rebid 4 which is natural and promises slam interest, and then it's just a matter of having agreements. On a B/I level I don't think there is a good way for south to bid keycard for hearts at that point, but experts will certainly have agreed something (possibly 4 keycard for diamonds and 4NT keycard for hearts).

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<!-- NORTHSOUTH begin --><table border=1> <tr> <td> <table> <tr> <td>Dealer:</td> <td> South </td> </tr> <tr> <td>Vul:</td> <td> E/W </td> </tr> <tr> <td>Scoring:</td> <td> MP </td> </tr> </table> </td> <td> <table border='1'> <tr> <th> <table> <tr> <th class='spades'>♠</th> <td> 5 </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='hearts'>♥</th> <td> AT982 </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='diamonds'>♦</th> <td> AQ962 </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='clubs'>♣</th> <td> Q2 </td> </tr> </table> </th> </tr> <tr> <th> <table> <tr> <th class='spades'>♠</th> <td> KQ2 </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='hearts'>♥</th> <td> KQJ7 </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='diamonds'>♦</th> <td> KT </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='clubs'>♣</th> <td> AKT8 </td> </tr> </table> </th> </tr> </table> </td> <td>  </td> </tr> </table><!-- NORTHSOUTH end -->

 

Hi everyone, I'm wondering about the most scientific approach here.  Thanks in advance.

KISS

 

One possible start is:

 

2nt=3d(tfr)

3h=4d(natural and game forcing)

4h= and now north bids...rkc then ends up in 6h.

 

Note in this style no superaccept is on over 2nt openings.

 

 

btw to accept diamonds rather than hearts south would cuebid(non h bid) over 4d

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Yes, transfer to and super accept. I like super accepting with 3NT here which really cannot be doubled to tell PD you have stuff in and allows responder to clarify his minor suit holdings, knowing I have 4 trumps and a max, in case of slam interest. Perhaps some pairs at MP might want 3NT as a flat super accept suggesting to play and others may have other methods to super accept at this level. Anyhow, super accepting with a bid less than 4 saves room for slam exploration.

 

After the super accept responder bids 4 showing slam interest and opener can RKC and then being off 1 ace but with KQx in and not being concerned about issues, I think he could try 6NT at mp rather than 6. However, one wonders if 6 hoping to make an OT if is not lead isn't better ?

 

EDIT: I need to wake up here, since after the superaccept, 4 is needed to retransfer back to when responder is minimum since it is really nice to have the lead come to the monster hand rather than to the weak hand. Either super accept with 3 (so what if the guy on lead doubles) and transfer back with 3NT or if you super accept 3NT, then 4 should be the only bid showing slam interest. I think I prefer super accepting with 3 so responder with slam interest can have two bids to better describe his hand.

 

In this case whether you super or not is moot since responder should drive to slam any how.

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