kfay Posted February 6, 2009 Report Share Posted February 6, 2009 Matchpoints, favorable QJxxxXX AKT9XX 1d 2c p 3sP. 4c p 4dP. ? 3s is a support jump shift. Nonforcing. 5+ spades and 4+ clubs. You regularly overcall 2c on these hands. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rogerclee Posted February 6, 2009 Report Share Posted February 6, 2009 LOL Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JLOL Posted February 6, 2009 Report Share Posted February 6, 2009 3s is a support jump shift. Nonforcing. LOL wtf Clee beat me to it... Anyways it is impossible for partner to bid 3S non forcing andthen over 4C non forcing bid 4D slam try lol. It is also terrible/unplayable to 3S as NF, and I've never heard of it, so given partner's inconsistent auction plus those facts I'm gonna guess it was forcing. I think this is a wtp 5C now, we already overcalled. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted February 6, 2009 Report Share Posted February 6, 2009 5♣. As in the problem conditions, it's common for me to regularly overcall on normal overcalls. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
andy_h Posted February 6, 2009 Report Share Posted February 6, 2009 Agree with the crowd. Nonforcing lol Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Phil Posted February 6, 2009 Report Share Posted February 6, 2009 It is also terrible/unplayable to 3S as NF, and I've never heard of it, I've played major suit fit bids as NF with one infrequent pard. He's a Grand LM (not Chris btw) so I would hesitate to label them as unplayable. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mtvesuvius Posted February 6, 2009 Report Share Posted February 6, 2009 LOL (5♣) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Finch Posted February 6, 2009 Report Share Posted February 6, 2009 If you play 2S as forcing, it's not unplayable to have 3S as non-forcing (although I don't). I play the (rather different) auction P P 1C P 2M as non-forcing fit. Anyway, it's still a bit of a LOL question as JLOL points out partner bids 3S non-forcing, we bid 4C non-forcing and partner apparently makes a slam try? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted February 7, 2009 Report Share Posted February 7, 2009 In theory, if 3♠ is actually NF (weird, but I'll bite), then 4♦ is NOT a slam try. So, what is it? Obviously, choice. If Responder makes a choice bid here, Responder has better spades than advertised. Maybe instead of something boring like KJ10xx he has something more intense, like AKJ10x. Playable opposite a stiff honor? Of course, with that holding, he could just rebid 4♠. So, 4♦ (as would 4♥) must be offering an alternative land. Maybe 5-1-4-3 shape? OK, I'll guess that partner has ♠AKJ10x ♥x ♦Jxxx ♣Jxx. 4♠ for me. (Of course, this is stupid, but I'm bidding on the announced agreements as best I can.) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jtfanclub Posted February 8, 2009 Report Share Posted February 8, 2009 I'm curious to see what the hand was. If MY partner did that, it would mean either mechanical failure (meant to bid 2♠) or mental failure (he thought I overcalled a diamond) and now was hurrying out of what could be a 3-2 fit. But I'm sure that never happens to you guys. :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted February 8, 2009 Report Share Posted February 8, 2009 Ken nailed it but it doesn't matter, 5♣ is obvious, even if 3♠ was forcing. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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